Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with traumatic brain injury (TBI) who had a craniotomy for increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the nurse assesses the client using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) every two hours. For the past 8 hours, the client's GCS score has been 14. What does this GCS finding indicate about the client?

• A. Neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP.
• B. At risk for neurological deterioration.
• C. Experiencing mild cognitive impairment.
• D. In need of immediate medical intervention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A GCS score of 14 indicates that the client is neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP. It suggests that the client's neurological status is relatively intact, with only mild impairment, if any. This finding reassures the nurse that there are currently no signs of deterioration or immediate need for intervention. Choice B is incorrect because a GCS score of 14 does not necessarily indicate immediate risk for neurological deterioration. Choice C is incorrect as mild cognitive impairment is not typically inferred from a GCS score of 14. Choice D is incorrect as immediate medical intervention is not warranted based on a GCS score of 14 without other concerning symptoms.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
• B. Subcutaneous emphysema
• C. Crepitus around the insertion site
• D. Drainage of 50 ml per hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the correct answer as it is most concerning in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. It may indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is acceptable and does not require immediate intervention. Crepitus around the insertion site may be a normal finding after chest tube placement and does not necessarily indicate a complication. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for a chest tube and does not require immediate intervention.

3. The mother of a one-month-old boy born at home brings the infant to his first well-baby visit. She mentions that he was born two weeks after his due date and is a 'good, quiet baby' who almost never cries. To assess for hypothyroidism, what question is most important for the nurse to ask the mother?

• A. Has your son had any immunizations yet?
• B. Is your son sleepy and difficult to feed?
• C. Are you breastfeeding or bottle feeding your son?
• D. Were any relatives born with birth defects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sleepiness and difficulty feeding are key signs of congenital hypothyroidism, which requires early diagnosis and treatment. Asking about immunizations (choice A) is important but not directly related to assessing hypothyroidism. The feeding method (choice C) is relevant for overall health but not specific to hypothyroidism. Inquiring about relatives with birth defects (choice D) is not the most crucial question to assess hypothyroidism in this scenario.

4. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dl
• B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dl
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dl

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia can be exacerbated during hemodialysis, making it crucial to closely monitor serum potassium levels before the procedure. Monitoring serum creatinine, serum calcium, or hemoglobin levels is important in managing ESRD but is not the immediate focus before hemodialysis. Therefore, option B is the correct choice.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septic shock. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
• B. Temperature of 100.4°F
• C. Heart rate of 120 beats per minute
• D. Urine output of 30 ml/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with septic shock, a heart rate of 120 beats per minute is a critical clinical finding that requires immediate intervention. A rapid heart rate can indicate worsening sepsis and inadequate tissue perfusion. Correcting the underlying cause of the tachycardia and stabilizing the heart rate is crucial in managing septic shock. The other options, while important, do not represent an immediate threat to the patient's condition. A blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg may be expected in septic shock, a temperature of 100.4°F is mildly elevated, and a urine output of 30 ml/hour, though decreased, may not be an immediate concern in the context of septic shock.

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