Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with traumatic brain injury (TBI) who had a craniotomy for increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the nurse assesses the client using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) every two hours. For the past 8 hours, the client's GCS score has been 14. What does this GCS finding indicate about the client?

• A. Neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP.
• B. At risk for neurological deterioration.
• C. Experiencing mild cognitive impairment.
• D. In need of immediate medical intervention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A GCS score of 14 indicates that the client is neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP. It suggests that the client's neurological status is relatively intact, with only mild impairment, if any. This finding reassures the nurse that there are currently no signs of deterioration or immediate need for intervention. Choice B is incorrect because a GCS score of 14 does not necessarily indicate immediate risk for neurological deterioration. Choice C is incorrect as mild cognitive impairment is not typically inferred from a GCS score of 14. Choice D is incorrect as immediate medical intervention is not warranted based on a GCS score of 14 without other concerning symptoms.

2. A client with chronic heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure receiving furosemide, crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. This finding suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing oxygen exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Monitoring and managing pulmonary congestion promptly are crucial to prevent worsening heart failure and respiratory compromise. The other options, while important to assess in a client with heart failure, do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like crackles in the lungs do. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute may be within the normal range for some individuals, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is relatively stable, and peripheral edema is a common manifestation of heart failure that should be monitored but does not require immediate intervention compared to pulmonary congestion.

3. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• B. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• D. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen as it indicates metabolic acidosis, which can occur due to the body compensating for chronic respiratory acidosis. This condition requires immediate intervention to restore the acid-base balance. Choice A, serum sodium of 135 mEq/L, is within normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and not directly related to COPD or oxygen therapy. Choice B, serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L, falls within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and is not typically affected by COPD or oxygen therapy. Choice D, serum glucose of 300 mg/dl, though elevated, is not directly related to COPD or oxygen therapy and would require management but is not the most concerning value in this scenario.

4. A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nosebleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child?

• A. Sitting up and leaning forward
• B. Lying flat with legs elevated
• C. Lying on the side with the head slightly raised
• D. Sitting up and tilting the head back

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child with a nosebleed (epistaxis) should be placed in a sitting position, leaning forward, to prevent blood from flowing down the throat. This position helps to control the bleeding and prevents the child from swallowing blood, which can cause nausea or vomiting. Choice B is incorrect because elevating the legs is not recommended for nosebleeds. Choice C is incorrect because lying on the side with the head slightly raised is not the optimal position for managing a nosebleed. Choice D is incorrect because tilting the head back can lead to blood flowing down the throat and potentially cause aspiration.

5. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before hemodialysis in a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD), monitoring serum potassium closely is crucial. ESRD patients are at risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to severe cardiac complications. Checking serum potassium levels helps in assessing and managing this electrolyte imbalance. Serum creatinine (Choice A) is a marker of kidney function but is not the most critical value to monitor before hemodialysis. Serum sodium (Choice C) may be affected in renal disease, but potassium is a more crucial electrolyte to monitor. Hemoglobin (Choice D) is essential for assessing anemia in ESRD but is not the primary focus before hemodialysis.

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