Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet reports a weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Instruct the client to reduce fluid intake
• B. Monitor the client's intake and output
• C. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
• D. Assess the client for signs of fluid overload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet and reports a significant weight gain is to assess the client for signs of fluid overload. This step is crucial in determining the severity of the situation and guiding further treatment. In this scenario, assessing for signs of fluid overload takes priority over other actions such as instructing the client to reduce fluid intake, monitoring intake and output, or administering a diuretic. While these actions may be necessary depending on the assessment findings, the initial priority is to evaluate the client's immediate condition.

2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the respiratory status. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 90%, though low, may not require immediate intervention as it is above the typical threshold for initiating supplemental oxygen. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, falls within the normal range for an adult and may not be an immediate cause for concern. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, are indicative of fluid in the lungs but may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs like decreased oxygen saturation or increased respiratory distress.

3. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) using an alcohol-based gel hand cleaner before performing catheter care. The UAP rubs both hands thoroughly for 2 minutes while standing at the bedside. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the UAP to remain in the client's room until the procedure is completed.
• B. Explain that the hand rub can be completed in less than 2 minutes.
• C. Inform the UAP that handwashing helps to promote better asepsis.
• D. Determine why the UAP was not wearing gloves in the client's room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Explaining that hand rubs can be effective with less time allows the UAP to perform the procedure more efficiently while maintaining asepsis. Choice A is incorrect because the UAP does not need to remain in the client's room until the procedure is completed. Choice C is incorrect as the UAP was using an alcohol-based gel hand cleaner, not handwashing. Choice D is incorrect as the scenario does not mention any issue with glove usage, so it is not relevant to the situation at hand.

4. A woman who takes pyridostigmine for myasthenia gravis (MG) arrives at the emergency department complaining of extreme muscle weakness. Her adult daughter tells the nurse that since yesterday her mother has been unable to smile. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Uncontrollable drooling.
• B. Inability to raise voice.
• C. Tingling of extremities.
• D. Eyelid drooping.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uncontrollable drooling can be a sign of a myasthenic crisis, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Drooling indicates difficulty in swallowing, which can lead to aspiration and respiratory compromise. Inability to raise voice (choice B) and tingling of extremities (choice C) are not typically associated with myasthenic crisis. Although eyelid drooping (choice D) is a common symptom of myasthenia gravis, it is not as urgent as uncontrollable drooling in indicating a potential crisis.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Blood glucose level of 300 mg/dl
• C. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Positive urine ketones

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L. A low serum potassium level in a client with DKA is concerning due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmias. Kussmaul respirations (choice A) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis in DKA. A blood glucose level of 300 mg/dl (choice B) is elevated but expected in DKA. Positive urine ketones (choice D) are a classic finding in DKA and not as concerning as low serum potassium.

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