HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with gestational diabetes, at 39 weeks of gestation, is in the second stage of labor. After delivering the fetal head, the nurse recognizes that shoulder dystocia is occurring. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean birth
- B. Encourage the client to move to a hands-and-knees position
- C. Assist the client to sharply flex her thighs up against the abdomen
- D. Lower the head of the bed and apply suprapubic pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of shoulder dystocia, the priority intervention is to assist the client in sharply flexing her thighs up against the abdomen (McRoberts maneuver). This action helps to widen the pelvic outlet. Encouraging the client to move to a hands-and-knees position may also be beneficial in some cases but is not the first-line intervention. Preparing for an emergency cesarean birth and applying suprapubic pressure are not appropriate initial interventions for shoulder dystocia.
2. The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RNs) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?
- A. Diabetic ketoacidosis with a Glasgow Coma Scale score change from 10 to 7.
- B. Myxedema coma with a blood pressure change from 80/50 to 70/40.
- C. Viral meningitis with a temperature change from 101°F to 102°F.
- D. Subdural hematoma with a blood pressure change from 150/80 to 170/60.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client with viral meningitis and a temperature change is the most stable and appropriate for assignment to the PN. A change in temperature from 101°F to 102°F is not as critical as changes in Glasgow Coma Scale score, blood pressure, or wider blood pressure variations. The other clients require more complex monitoring and intervention due to their critical changes in status.
3. When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion, which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- D. Echocardiogram
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with new-onset confusion, an ECG is crucial to assess for cardiac ischemia, which could be a potential cause of the confusion. A chest X-ray (Choice B) is not typically the first-line diagnostic test for evaluating confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are more useful in assessing oxygenation and acid-base balance rather than the cause of confusion in this scenario. While an echocardiogram (Choice D) provides valuable information about cardiac structure and function, it is usually not the initial diagnostic test needed in the evaluation of acute confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Obtain a sputum culture.
- D. Administer antibiotics as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with COPD admitted with pneumonia, the priority intervention should be to administer oxygen therapy as prescribed. This is crucial to improve oxygenation, especially in a client with compromised respiratory function. Elevating the head of the bed can help with breathing but is secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation. Obtaining a sputum culture and administering antibiotics are important steps in the treatment of pneumonia but come after ensuring adequate oxygen supply.
5. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, the outer part of her eyebrows has disappeared, and her eyes are all puffy. Which follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?
- A. Is there a history of female baldness in your family?
- B. Are you under any unusual stress at home or work?
- C. Do you work with hazardous chemicals?
- D. Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the manifestations reported by the client, such as coarse hair, missing eyebrows, and puffy eyes, are indicative of hypothyroidism. Changes in the fingernails, such as brittle or pitted nails, can also be associated with hypothyroidism. Option A is incorrect as female baldness is not directly related to the reported symptoms. Option B is less relevant as stress typically does not cause these specific symptoms. Option C is also less relevant as exposure to hazardous chemicals would present with different symptoms.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access