HESI RN
Maternity HESI Quizlet
1. The client at 10 weeks' gestation is palpated with the fundus at 3 fingerbreadths above the pubic symphysis. The client reports nausea, vomiting, and scant dark brown vaginal discharge. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Collect a urine sample for urinalysis.
- B. Measure vital signs.
- C. Recommend bed rest.
- D. Obtain human chorionic gonadotropin levels.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a pregnant client with a fundal height greater than expected at 10 weeks and experiencing scant dark brown vaginal discharge, there is a concern for a molar pregnancy. Assessing human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels is crucial in this situation to confirm or rule out this condition.
2. A 3-month-old with myelomeningocele and atonic bladder is catheterized every 4hrs to prevent urinary retention. The home health nurse notes that the child has developed episodes of sneezing, urticarial, watery eyes, and a rash in the diaper area. What action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Auscultate the lungs for respiratory pneumonia.
- B. Change to latex-free gloves when handling infant.
- C. Draw blood to analyze for streptococcal infection.
- D. Apply zinc oxide to perineum with each diaper change.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Latex allergy is a concern in patients with myelomeningocele, so switching to latex-free gloves is important.
3. The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old child with Reye’s syndrome. Which goal of treatment most clearly relates to caring for this child?
- A. Reduce cerebral edema and lower intracranial pressure
- B. Avert hypotension and septic shock
- C. Prevent cardiac arrhythmias and heart failure
- D. Promote kidney perfusion and normal blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Reducing cerebral edema and lowering intracranial pressure is the primary goal of treatment for Reye’s syndrome.
4. In assessing a 9-year-old boy admitted to the hospital with possible acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN), what information is most significant to obtain in his history?
- A. Back pain for a few days
- B. A history of hypertension
- C. A sore throat last week
- D. Diuresis during the nights
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A recent sore throat is most significant in this case as it could indicate a preceding streptococcal infection, which is a crucial factor in diagnosing APSGN. Streptococcal infection often precedes APSGN, and recognizing this history is essential for appropriate management and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of APSGN. Back pain and diuresis are symptoms that may not directly correlate with APSGN, while a history of hypertension, although important in general health assessment, is not as specific to the current scenario compared to a recent sore throat.
5. During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don’t plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Explain that the risk of inheriting the disorder decreases by 50% with each child the couple has.
- B. Acknowledge that the next child will inherit the disorder since the first child did not.
- C. Encourage the couple to reconsider their decision since the inheritance pattern may be sex-linked.
- D. Confirm that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.
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