Nursing Elites

1. The client at 10 weeks' gestation is palpated with the fundus at 3 fingerbreadths above the pubic symphysis. The client reports nausea, vomiting, and scant dark brown vaginal discharge. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Collect a urine sample for urinalysis.
• B. Measure vital signs.
• C. Recommend bed rest.
• D. Obtain human chorionic gonadotropin levels.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a pregnant client with a fundal height greater than expected at 10 weeks and experiencing scant dark brown vaginal discharge, there is a concern for a molar pregnancy. Assessing human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels is crucial in this situation to confirm or rule out this condition.

2. A two-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit
• B. Administer the scheduled dose
• C. Calculate the safe dose range
• D. Review the serum digoxin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the scheduled dose of digoxin. A heart rate of 128 bpm in a two-year-old child with heart failure falls within the safe range for digoxin administration. It indicates that the child's heart rate is not excessively low, which could be a concern for administering digoxin. Therefore, proceeding with the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is already obtained. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not required as the heart rate is within the safe range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the heart rate indicates that administering the next dose is appropriate.

3. A father watching the admission of his newborn to the nursery notices that eye ointment is placed in the infant's eyes. He asks what is the purpose of the ointment. The nurse would be correct in stating that the purpose of the ointment is:

• A. Prevent eye infection.
• B. Dilate the pupil so the red reflex can be visualized.
• C. Clear the infant's vision.
• D. Prevent herpes infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent eye infection. Eye ointment, usually containing erythromycin, is applied to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis, which can be caused by bacteria present in the birth canal. It is not used to dilate the pupil, clear the infant's vision, or prevent herpes infection.

4. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache 24 hours following the delivery of a normal newborn. Prior to the anesthesiologist's arrival on the unit, which action should the nurse perform?

• A. Apply an abdominal binder.
• B. Cleanse the spinal injection site.
• C. Insert an indwelling Foley catheter.
• D. Place procedure equipment at the bedside.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a postpartum client exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache, applying an abdominal binder is a priority action. The abdominal binder can help reduce the severity of a spinal headache by increasing intra-abdominal pressure, which may relieve pressure on the dural sac and alleviate symptoms. This intervention can be performed promptly by the nurse to provide immediate relief while waiting for further evaluation and management by the anesthesiologist. Cleansing the spinal injection site (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation as the headache is likely due to a dural puncture during epidural anesthesia rather than infection. Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter (Choice C) and placing procedure equipment at the bedside (Choice D) are not the appropriate actions to address a spinal headache and should not take precedence over applying an abdominal binder.

5. A 6-year-old with heart failure (HF) gained 2 pounds in the last 24 hours. Which intervention is more important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Graph the daily weight for the past week.
• B. Decrease IV flow rate.
• C. Assess bilateral lung sounds.
• D. Restrict intake of oral fluids.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing bilateral lung sounds is crucial in this scenario as it can provide essential information about potential fluid accumulation in the lungs, indicating worsening heart failure. This assessment can guide immediate interventions to prevent further deterioration in the patient's condition.

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