a loading dose of terbutaline brethine 250 mcg iv is prescribed for a client in preterm labor brethine 20 mg is added to 1000 ml d w how many ml of th
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1. A loading dose of terbutaline (Brethine) 250 mcg IV is prescribed for a client in preterm labor. Brethine 20 mg is added to 1,000 mL of D5W. How many milliliters of the solution should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the amount of terbutaline to administer, first convert the dose to the same unit. 250 mcg = 0.25 mg. Next, set up a proportion: 20 mg is to 1000 mL as 0.25 mg is to X mL. Cross multiply and solve for X: 20 × X = 0.25 × 1000. X = (0.25 × 1000) / 20 = 12.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 13 mL of the solution. Choice A is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the accurate conversion and calculation. Choice C is incorrect as it is not the result of the correct proportion calculation.

2. A 3-month-old with myelomeningocele and atonic bladder is catheterized every 4hrs to prevent urinary retention. The home health nurse notes that the child has developed episodes of sneezing, urticarial, watery eyes, and a rash in the diaper area. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Latex allergy is a concern in patients with myelomeningocele, so switching to latex-free gloves is important.

3. A 28-year-old client in active labor complains of cramps in her leg. What intervention should be implemented?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During active labor, if a client complains of leg cramps, extending the leg and dorsiflexing the foot can help relieve the muscle cramps by stretching the affected muscles. This intervention promotes circulation and can alleviate discomfort associated with leg cramps.

4. A 16-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She is not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in this client’s nursing care plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with eclampsia, the priority intervention is to keep airway equipment at the bedside to manage potential convulsions effectively. This proactive measure is essential to ensure rapid response and intervention in case of convulsions, which can occur in clients with eclampsia.

5. Insulin therapy is initiated for a 12-year-old child who is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which action is most important for the nurse to include in the child’s plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In managing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), monitoring serum glucose levels is crucial to adjust the infusion rate of regular insulin effectively. This helps in controlling blood glucose levels and preventing complications associated with DKA. Close monitoring and adjustments based on glucose levels are essential for the successful management of DKA. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on a different type of insulin and compliance schedule without addressing the immediate needs of managing DKA. Choice C is not the priority action and involves educating parents on a different method of insulin administration. Choice D is also not the most important action as it suggests consulting with the healthcare provider about a different type of insulin rather than focusing on immediate glucose monitoring for insulin adjustment in DKA management.

Similar Questions

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