a loading dose of terbutaline brethine 250 mcg iv is prescribed for a client in preterm labor brethine 20 mg is added to 1000 ml d w how many ml of th
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Maternity Test Bank

1. A loading dose of terbutaline (Brethine) 250 mcg IV is prescribed for a client in preterm labor. Brethine 20 mg is added to 1,000 mL of D5W. How many milliliters of the solution should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the amount of terbutaline to administer, first convert the dose to the same unit. 250 mcg = 0.25 mg. Next, set up a proportion: 20 mg is to 1000 mL as 0.25 mg is to X mL. Cross multiply and solve for X: 20 × X = 0.25 × 1000. X = (0.25 × 1000) / 20 = 12.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 13 mL of the solution. Choice A is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the accurate conversion and calculation. Choice C is incorrect as it is not the result of the correct proportion calculation.

2. A pregnant woman in her first trimester is experiencing watery vaginal discharge. What should the nurse tell her?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informing the pregnant woman that watery vaginal discharge is normal during the first trimester is crucial to providing reassurance and reducing anxiety. This discharge, known as leukorrhea, is common during pregnancy due to increased estrogen levels and increased blood flow to the pelvic area. It helps maintain a healthy balance of bacteria in the vagina and protects the birth canal from infection. Advising the woman to see a doctor immediately may cause unnecessary alarm, while suggesting the use of panty liners can help manage the discharge comfortably. Suggesting a change in diet is not relevant to addressing watery vaginal discharge in this scenario.

3. A client at 32-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic with complaints of pedal edema, dyspnea, fatigue, and a moist cough. Which question is most important for the LPN/LVN to ask this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Rheumatic fever can lead to rheumatic heart disease, which may be exacerbated during pregnancy, causing symptoms like pedal edema and dyspnea. Asking about a history of rheumatic fever is crucial in this case to assess the potential impact on the client's current symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this scenario as they do not directly relate to the presenting symptoms and history of rheumatic fever.

4. A young girl with a fractured radius has a cast applied. As the cast is drying, it is elevated above the level of her heart. Which assessment finding should the healthcare provider be reported to immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Numbness and inability to move fingers are concerning findings that suggest potential nerve damage or compartment syndrome due to increased pressure within the cast. This requires immediate notification of the healthcare provider to prevent further complications or permanent damage.

5. The LPN/LVN is preparing a client with a term pregnancy who is in active labor for an amniotomy. What equipment should the nurse have available at the client's bedside?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For performing an amniotomy, the nurse should have a sterile glove to maintain asepsis and an amniotic hook to rupture the amniotic sac. Litmus paper is not required for this procedure, and a fetal scalp electrode is used for fetal monitoring, not for an amniotomy.

Similar Questions

Client teaching is an important part of the maternity nurse's role. Which factor has the greatest influence on successful teaching of the gravid client?
A woman at 36-weeks' gestation who is Rh negative is admitted to labor and delivery reporting abdominal cramping. She is placed on strict bedrest, and the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern are monitored with an external fetal monitor. The nurse notes a large amount of bright red vaginal bleeding. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
The client at 10 weeks' gestation is palpated with the fundus at 3 fingerbreadths above the pubic symphysis. The client reports nausea, vomiting, and scant dark brown vaginal discharge. What action should the nurse take?
The healthcare provider prescribes magnesium sulfate 6 grams intravenously (IV) to be infused over 20 minutes for a client with preterm labor. The IV bag contains magnesium sulfate 20 grams in dextrose 5% in water 500 mL. How many mL/hour should the nurse set the infusion pump?
The healthcare provider prescribes oxytocin 2 milliunits/minute to induce labor for a client at 41-weeks gestation. The nurse initiates an infusion of Ringer’s Lactate solution 1000 mL with oxytocin 10 units. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses