HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. A loading dose of terbutaline (Brethine) 250 mcg IV is prescribed for a client in preterm labor. Brethine 20 mg is added to 1,000 mL of D5W. How many milliliters of the solution should the nurse administer?
- A. 45
- B. 15 mL
- C. 4
- D. 13
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the amount of terbutaline to administer, first convert the dose to the same unit. 250 mcg = 0.25 mg. Next, set up a proportion: 20 mg is to 1000 mL as 0.25 mg is to X mL. Cross multiply and solve for X: 20 × X = 0.25 × 1000. X = (0.25 × 1000) / 20 = 12.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 13 mL of the solution. Choice A is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the accurate conversion and calculation. Choice C is incorrect as it is not the result of the correct proportion calculation.
2. The nurse is measuring the frontal occipital circumference (FOC) of a 3-month-old infant, notes that the FOC has increased by 5 cm since birth, and observes that the child’s head appears large in relation to body size. Which action is most important for the nurse to take next?
- A. Measure the infant’s head-to-heel length
- B. Observe the infant for sunsetting eyes
- C. Palpate the anterior fontanel for tension and bulging
- D. Plot the measurement on the infant’s growth chart
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Palpating the anterior fontanel for tension and bulging is essential to assess for increased intracranial pressure, which could be indicated by the enlarged head circumference. This assessment can help identify potential neurological issues that need prompt attention.
3. A woman who delivered a 9-pound baby via cesarean section under spinal anesthesia is recovering in the post-anesthesia care unit. Her fundus is firm at the umbilicus, and a continuous trickle of bright red blood with no clots is observed by the nurse. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Assess her blood pressure.
- B. Apply an ice pack to the perineum.
- C. Allow the infant to breastfeed.
- D. Massage the fundus vigorously.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, continuous bleeding despite a firm fundus suggests a possible laceration. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to assess the woman's blood pressure. This helps determine the severity of blood loss and guides further interventions, such as identifying the need for additional assessments or interventions to control bleeding. Applying an ice pack to the perineum (choice B) would not address the ongoing bleeding issue. Allowing the infant to breastfeed (choice C) may not be safe if there is significant bleeding. Massaging the fundus vigorously (choice D) is contraindicated when there is continuous bleeding as it can worsen the bleeding or cause further harm.
4. During a woman's first prenatal visit, the nurse reviews her health care record, noting a history of chickenpox as a child and syphilis as a teenager. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Obtain blood and urine for prenatal screens.
- B. Schedule prenatal visits to occur monthly.
- C. Explain common complications of pregnancy.
- D. Obtain baseline blood pressure and weight.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Obtaining blood and urine for prenatal screens is crucial in identifying any potential infections or conditions that may require monitoring throughout the pregnancy. Screening for infections such as syphilis is essential to ensure appropriate management and prevent adverse outcomes. This action helps in early detection and timely intervention, promoting the health and well-being of both the mother and the developing fetus. The other options, while important during prenatal care, are not as critical as obtaining prenatal screens to assess for any existing infections that could impact the pregnancy.
5. During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don’t plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Explain that the risk of inheriting the disorder decreases by 50% with each child the couple has.
- B. Acknowledge that the next child will inherit the disorder since the first child did not.
- C. Encourage the couple to reconsider their decision since the inheritance pattern may be sex-linked.
- D. Confirm that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.
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