Nursing Elites

1. A loading dose of terbutaline (Brethine) 250 mcg IV is prescribed for a client in preterm labor. Brethine 20 mg is added to 1,000 mL of D5W. How many milliliters of the solution should the nurse administer?

• A. 45
• B. 15 mL
• C. 4
• D. 13

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the amount of terbutaline to administer, first convert the dose to the same unit. 250 mcg = 0.25 mg. Next, set up a proportion: 20 mg is to 1000 mL as 0.25 mg is to X mL. Cross multiply and solve for X: 20 × X = 0.25 × 1000. X = (0.25 × 1000) / 20 = 12.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 13 mL of the solution. Choice A is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the accurate conversion and calculation. Choice C is incorrect as it is not the result of the correct proportion calculation.

2. The nurse is caring for a one-year-old child following surgical correction of hypospadias. Which nursing action has the highest priority?

• A. Monitor urinary output
• B. Auscultate bowel sounds
• C. Observe appearance of stool
• D. Record percent of diet consumed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In caring for a one-year-old child post hypospadias surgery, the highest priority action is to monitor urinary output. This is crucial to assess kidney function and ensure there are no complications following the surgical procedure. Auscultating bowel sounds, observing stool appearance, and recording diet consumption are important assessments too, but in this case, monitoring urinary output takes precedence due to the nature of the surgery and potential complications related to urinary function.

3. The client is 24 hours postpartum and is being discharged. The nurse explains that vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. If the client starts having red bleeding after the color changes, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position.
• C. Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room.
• D. Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client experiences red bleeding after the color changes, it may indicate possible hemorrhage or retained placental fragments, which require immediate attention. Instructing the client to reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt evaluation and management of potential complications.

4. A woman who delivered a 9-pound baby via cesarean section under spinal anesthesia is recovering in the post-anesthesia care unit. Her fundus is firm at the umbilicus, and a continuous trickle of bright red blood with no clots is observed by the nurse. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Assess her blood pressure.
• B. Apply an ice pack to the perineum.
• C. Allow the infant to breastfeed.
• D. Massage the fundus vigorously.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, continuous bleeding despite a firm fundus suggests a possible laceration. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to assess the woman's blood pressure. This helps determine the severity of blood loss and guides further interventions, such as identifying the need for additional assessments or interventions to control bleeding. Applying an ice pack to the perineum (choice B) would not address the ongoing bleeding issue. Allowing the infant to breastfeed (choice C) may not be safe if there is significant bleeding. Massaging the fundus vigorously (choice D) is contraindicated when there is continuous bleeding as it can worsen the bleeding or cause further harm.

5. A client whose labor is being augmented with an oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion requests an epidural for pain control. Findings of the last vaginal exam, performed 1 hour ago, were 3 cm cervical dilation, 60% effacement, and a -2 station. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Decrease the oxytocin infusion rate
• B. Determine current cervical dilation
• C. Request placement of the epidural
• D. Give a bolus of intravenous fluids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client receiving an oxytocin infusion who requests an epidural, it is crucial to give a bolus of intravenous fluids first. This action helps prevent hypotension, a common side effect of epidural anesthesia, before the placement of the epidural. Maintaining adequate hydration is essential to support maternal blood pressure stability during the procedure.

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