the nurse is caring for a client that calls and asks the nurse to come to the room when the nurse arrives the client explains that they just dont feel
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day

1. The client is cared for by a nurse and calls for the nurse to come to the room, expressing feeling unwell. The client's vital signs are BP: 130/88, HR: 102, RR: 28. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! The client's vital signs indicate tachycardia and tachypnea, which could be indicative of hypoxia. Administering a PRN anxiolytic would not address the underlying issue and could mask deterioration. Reassuring the client without further assessment or intervention could lead to a delay in appropriate care if there is a serious underlying cause for the symptoms. Determining the Glasgow Coma Scale is not relevant to the client's presenting symptoms of feeling unwell and suspecting something is wrong, coupled with abnormal vital signs.

2. A central venous pressure reading of 11cm/H(2)O of an IV of normal saline is determined by the nurse caring for the patient. The patient has a diagnosis of pericarditis. Which of the following is the most applicable?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A central venous pressure reading above 10cm/H(2)O may indicate a condition of pericarditis, as the inflammation and fluid accumulation around the heart can lead to elevated pressures. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypovolemia would typically result in lower CVP readings, not higher. Not enough fluid given would also lead to lower CVP levels. Arteriosclerosis is not directly related to CVP readings in the context of pericarditis.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's serum glucose levels. Which of the following scenarios would indicate abnormal serum glucose values for a 30-year-old male?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 55 mg/dL. The standard range for serum glucose levels is typically 60-115 mg/dL. A serum glucose level of 55 mg/dL falls below this range, indicating hypoglycemia. Options A, C, and D are within the standard range for serum glucose levels and would not be considered abnormal for a 30-year-old male.

4. A female sex worker enters a clinic for treatment of a sexually transmitted disease. This disease is the most prevalent STD in the United States. The nurse can anticipate that the woman has which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The question describes a female sex worker seeking treatment for the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in the United States. Chlamydia is the correct answer as it is the most common STD in the country according to epidemiological studies. While herpes (choice A) is common, it is not the most prevalent. Gonorrhea (choice C) and syphilis (choice D) are less prevalent compared to chlamydia, making them incorrect choices.

5. With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for a prolapsed umbilical cord. Prolapsed umbilical cord is a critical emergency situation where the umbilical cord descends into the vagina before the fetal presenting part, leading to compression between the presenting part and the maternal pelvis. This compression can compromise or completely cut off fetoplacental perfusion, endangering the fetus. Immediate delivery should be attempted to save the fetus. Quickening refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, ophthalmia neonatorum is an eye infection in newborns, and pica is a condition characterized by cravings for non-nutritive substances, none of which are directly related to the risks associated with a breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.

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