the nurse is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infants clinical pict
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HESI RN

HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam

1. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant's clinical picture?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis leads to obstruction at the outlet of the stomach, causing frequent vomiting and loss of stomach acids. This results in a loss of hydrochloric acid and hydrogen ions, leading to metabolic alkalosis due to an increase in serum bicarbonate levels. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic alkalosis. Choice B, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect as it is not typically associated with pyloric stenosis. Choice C, metabolic acidosis, is incorrect because the loss of stomach acids in pyloric stenosis leads to metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D, respiratory alkalosis, is also incorrect as it is not the usual consequence of pyloric stenosis.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a 6-month-old infant with heart failure. The healthcare provider notes that the infant’s heart rate is 90 beats per minute. What should the healthcare provider do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. Digoxin should be withheld if the infant’s heart rate is below 100 beats per minute. Administering digoxin in this situation can further slow down the heart rate in infants with heart failure, leading to potential adverse effects. Reassessing the heart rate in 30 minutes is not the best immediate action to take, as prompt notification and withholding of the medication are crucial. Administering the medication as prescribed or giving half the dose can exacerbate the situation by potentially further lowering the heart rate.

3. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

4. When a mother of a 3-year-old boy gives birth to a baby girl and the boy asks why his baby sister is breastfeeding from their mother, how should the nurse respond? Select the option that is not appropriate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is not the appropriate response in this scenario. The correct answer is choice A, which normalizes the situation for the child by reminding him that his mother breastfed him too. This response helps the older brother understand that breastfeeding is a natural and common practice for newborns, including his baby sister, just as it was for him when he was a baby. Choice B, while true, does not directly address the child's question and may not provide the same level of reassurance and normalization as choice A. Choices C and D also do not directly answer the child's question and do not provide the same level of connection and understanding as choice A.

5. A 13-year-old client with type 1 diabetes is admitted to the hospital with a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL. The client is lethargic and has fruity-smelling breath. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority action for the nurse is to start an IV infusion of normal saline. The client's presentation with lethargy, fruity-smelling breath, and high blood glucose level indicates diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). IV fluids are essential to correct dehydration and help stabilize the client's condition. Checking for ketones in the urine is important, but fluid replacement takes precedence to address the immediate risk of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering insulin is also a crucial intervention for DKA, but fluid resuscitation should first be initiated.

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