the mother of an 11 year old boy who has juvenile arthritis tells the nurse i really dont want my son to become dependent on pain medication so i only
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam

1. The mother of an 11-year-old boy with juvenile arthritis tells the nurse, 'I really don’t want my son to become dependent on pain medication, so I only allow him to take it when he is really hurting.' Which information is most important for the nurse to provide this mother?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should educate the mother that giving pain medication around the clock helps maintain a consistent level of pain control, preventing severe pain episodes and improving the child's quality of life. It is essential to manage pain proactively rather than waiting for the child to be in severe pain before administering medication. Choices A, B, and C do not address the importance of proactive pain management and maintaining a consistent level of pain control. Encouraging rest, quiet activities, or hot baths as distractions or alternatives may not provide adequate pain relief for the child with juvenile arthritis, and they do not address the underlying issue of effective pain management.

2. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

3. A 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has had a steady decrease in heart rate, now at 76 bpm from 110 bpm four hours ago. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. The blood pressure of 70/40 is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not indicate immediate danger. A respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. Urine output of 20 mL/hr is low but may not be the most concerning finding in this scenario compared to the drop in blood pressure.

4. The mother of a 14-year-old who had a below-the-knee amputation for osteosarcoma tells the nurse that her child is angry and blaming her for allowing the amputation to occur. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the child's anger as a coping mechanism helps validate their feelings and can open a dialogue for further support.

5. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

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