Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

2. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide to parents?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
• B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
• C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
• D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects males. It is crucial for the nurse to explain to the parents that this condition follows an inheritance pattern where the gene mutation responsible for the disorder is located on the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome, so if they inherit the mutated gene, they will develop the disease. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes, providing a backup copy that can compensate for the mutation. Understanding this inheritance pattern is essential for family planning decisions, as the risk of passing on the disorder to future children can be explained based on this genetic inheritance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the genetic basis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy or its inheritance pattern, which is crucial information for the parents in this scenario.

3. The heart rate for a 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has steadily decreased over the last few hours, now it's 76 bpm, the previous reading 4 hours ago was 110 bpm. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation 94%.
• B. RR of 25 breaths/minute.
• C. Urine output 20 mL/hr.
• D. BP 70/40.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. A decrease in blood pressure may suggest poor cardiac output and compromised perfusion, requiring urgent medical attention. The other findings (oxygen saturation of 94%, RR of 25 breaths/minute, and urine output of 20 mL/hr) are within normal ranges for a 3-year-old and do not indicate immediate deterioration of the heart defect.

4. What action should the nurse take when a child presents with fever, sore throat, swollen red spots, and fluid-filled blisters?

• A. Obtain a fluid culture from the blisters
• B. Administer a fever-reducing medication
• C. Cover the drainage vesicles with a dressing
• D. Implement transmission precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a child presents with fever, sore throat, swollen red spots, and fluid-filled blisters, it may indicate a contagious viral infection. In such cases, implementing transmission precautions is crucial to prevent the spread of the infection to others in the pediatric clinic or community. Obtaining a fluid culture from the blisters (Choice A) may not be necessary at the initial stage without knowing the cause of the infection. Administering a fever-reducing medication (Choice B) may help manage symptoms but doesn't address the need for preventing transmission. Covering the drainage vesicles with a dressing (Choice C) may provide comfort to the child but does not directly address the risk of transmission to others.

5. A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and vomiting. The child’s parent reports that the pain started suddenly and is located in the lower right abdomen. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer pain medication
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• C. Start an IV line for fluid administration
• D. Obtain a complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The child's presentation of sudden, severe abdominal pain in the lower right abdomen is highly concerning for appendicitis, a medical emergency. Promptly notifying the healthcare provider is crucial for further evaluation and management. Administering pain medication as the first action might mask symptoms and delay diagnosis. Starting an IV line for fluid administration and obtaining a complete blood count are important interventions but should come after healthcare provider notification.

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