Nursing Elites

1. What is the best response for the nurse when a 2-year-old boy begins to cry as the mother starts to leave?

• A. Let me read this book to you.
• B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation is to help the child understand that the separation is temporary. Waving bye-bye to mommy can be reassuring to the child and make the separation process easier. It acknowledges the child's feelings while providing a positive and comforting interaction. Choice A may distract the child temporarily but doesn't address the underlying issue of separation anxiety. Choice B is inaccurate as children may continue to cry even after the parent leaves. Choice C diminishes the child's emotions and doesn't offer a supportive approach.

2. A 10-year-old child is being discharged after being admitted for status asthmaticus. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Use a peak flow meter daily to monitor asthma control
• B. Avoid exposure to known allergens
• C. Continue taking asthma medications as prescribed
• D. Seek emergency care if symptoms worsen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a peak flow meter daily is crucial as it helps monitor asthma control by measuring how well the child's lungs are functioning. This monitoring can indicate when intervention is needed before symptoms worsen or become severe, allowing for timely management of asthma exacerbations.

3. What intervention should the nurse implement first for a male toddler brought to the emergency center approximately three hours after swallowing tablets from his grandmother’s bottle of digoxin (Lanoxin)?

• A. Administer activated charcoal orally
• B. Prepare gastric lavage
• C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
• D. Give IV digoxin immune fab (Digibind)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of digoxin toxicity, IV digoxin immune fab (Digibind) is the antidote and should be administered first to counteract the effects of digoxin poisoning. This intervention is crucial in managing digoxin overdose and should be initiated promptly to improve patient outcomes. Activated charcoal and gastric lavage are not effective in treating digoxin poisoning and may not be beneficial at this stage. While obtaining an electrocardiogram is important to assess cardiac function, administering the antidote should take precedence to address the immediate life-threatening effects of digoxin toxicity.

4. A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child's oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Ask the mother if the child has had a runny nose
• B. Cleanse purulent exudate from the affected ear canal
• C. Apply a topical antibiotic to the periauricular area
• D. Provide parent education to prevent recurrence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child presenting with ear pain and fever, asking if the child has had a runny nose is crucial in assessing possible causes of an ear infection. Respiratory infections can lead to secondary ear infections, so exploring symptoms related to upper respiratory tract infections, like a runny nose, can help in the evaluation and management of the child's condition. Choice B is incorrect because cleansing purulent exudate should be done by a healthcare provider, not a nurse, and only if necessary. Choice C is incorrect because applying a topical antibiotic without proper evaluation and prescription is not within the nurse's scope of practice. Choice D is incorrect because while parent education may be necessary, addressing the immediate concern of evaluating possible causes of the ear pain and fever takes priority.

5. In a 6-year-old child with asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and using accessory muscles to breathe with a peak flow reading in the red zone, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
• B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
• C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
• D. Contact the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a 6-year-old child with asthma who is experiencing difficulty breathing, using accessory muscles to breathe, and has a peak flow reading in the red zone is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator first. Nebulized bronchodilators work rapidly to open up the airways, providing immediate relief and improving breathing. This intervention is crucial in addressing the acute respiratory distress the child is facing. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or contacting the healthcare provider can be considered after the initial administration of the bronchodilator, as they are not the primary interventions needed to manage the child's acute respiratory distress.

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