HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. What is the best response for the nurse when a 2-year-old boy begins to cry as the mother starts to leave?
- A. Let me read this book to you.
- B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
- C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
- D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation is to help the child understand that the separation is temporary. Waving bye-bye to mommy can be reassuring to the child and make the separation process easier. It acknowledges the child's feelings while providing a positive and comforting interaction. Choice A may distract the child temporarily but doesn't address the underlying issue of separation anxiety. Choice B is inaccurate as children may continue to cry even after the parent leaves. Choice C diminishes the child's emotions and doesn't offer a supportive approach.
2. The healthcare provider is developing the plan of care for a hospitalized child with von Willebrand disease. What priority nursing intervention should be included in this child's plan of care?
- A. Reduce exposure to infection.
- B. Eliminate contact with cold objects.
- C. Guard against bleeding injuries.
- D. Reduce contact with other children.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Children with von Willebrand disease have a deficiency in a clotting protein, putting them at risk of bleeding episodes. The priority nursing intervention for a child with von Willebrand disease is to guard against bleeding injuries to prevent excessive bleeding or hemorrhage. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority interventions for von Willebrand disease. While reducing exposure to infection is important for any hospitalized child, it is not the priority for von Willebrand disease. Eliminating contact with cold objects is more relevant for conditions like Raynaud's disease. Reducing contact with other children is not a specific priority related to managing von Willebrand disease.
3. A two-year-old child with heart failure is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Determine the pulse deficit.
- B. Administer the scheduled dose.
- C. Calculate the safe dose range.
- D. Review the serum digoxin level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario as the heart rate of 128 bpm falls within the acceptable range for a two-year-old child with heart failure. It indicates that the child may benefit from the therapeutic effects of digoxin. Monitoring the heart rate closely after administration is essential to ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is within the acceptable range. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not needed since the heart rate is already within the expected parameters. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not the immediate action required in this case where the heart rate is within the normal range.
4. A 7-year-old child with type 1 diabetes is brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The nurse notes that the child's blood glucose level is 350 mg/dL. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
- B. Administer insulin as prescribed
- C. Monitor the child's urine output
- D. Check the child's urine for ketones
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a child with type 1 diabetes presenting with abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a high blood glucose level, the priority is to administer IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which are crucial in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering insulin without addressing fluid deficits can lead to further complications. While monitoring urine output and checking for ketones are important steps in the care of a child with diabetes, the immediate focus should be on correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances through IV fluid administration to stabilize the child's condition.
5. The caregiver is caring for a 10-year-old child with a history of frequent ear infections. The parents are concerned about their child’s hearing and speech development. What is the caregiver’s best response?
- A. Let’s schedule a hearing test and refer to a speech therapist if needed
- B. Most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays
- C. There is no need to worry unless the infections persist into adolescence
- D. Your child’s hearing and speech should be normal by now
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The appropriate response for the caregiver is to address the parents' concerns by suggesting scheduling a hearing test and potentially referring the child to a speech therapist if necessary. This proactive approach can help evaluate and support the child's hearing and speech development effectively. Choice B is incorrect as assuming that most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays may overlook potential issues that need intervention. Choice C is wrong because waiting until adolescence to address concerns may lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the parents' valid concerns without offering a solution or further evaluation.
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