Nursing Elites

1. What is the best response for the nurse when a 2-year-old boy begins to cry as the mother starts to leave?

• A. Let me read this book to you.
• B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation is to help the child understand that the separation is temporary. Waving bye-bye to mommy can be reassuring to the child and make the separation process easier. It acknowledges the child's feelings while providing a positive and comforting interaction. Choice A may distract the child temporarily but doesn't address the underlying issue of separation anxiety. Choice B is inaccurate as children may continue to cry even after the parent leaves. Choice C diminishes the child's emotions and doesn't offer a supportive approach.

2. The mother of a 4-month-old asks the nurse for advice in preventing diaper rash. What suggestion should the nurse provide?

• A. At diaper change generously powder the baby's diaper area with talcum powder to promote dryness.
• B. Wash the diaper area every 2 hours with soap and water to help prevent skin breakdown.
• C. Use a barrier cream, such as zinc oxide, which does not have to be completely removed with each diaper change.
• D. Place a cloth diaper inside the disposable diaper for overnight periods when increased wearing time is likely.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a barrier cream like zinc oxide protects the skin and helps prevent diaper rash.

3. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide to parents?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
• B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
• C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
• D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects males. It is crucial for the nurse to explain to the parents that this condition follows an inheritance pattern where the gene mutation responsible for the disorder is located on the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome, so if they inherit the mutated gene, they will develop the disease. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes, providing a backup copy that can compensate for the mutation. Understanding this inheritance pattern is essential for family planning decisions, as the risk of passing on the disorder to future children can be explained based on this genetic inheritance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the genetic basis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy or its inheritance pattern, which is crucial information for the parents in this scenario.

4. The mother of a 14-year-old who had a below-the-knee amputation for osteosarcoma tells the nurse that her child is angry and blaming her for allowing the amputation to occur. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. I will ask the HCP for a psychiatric consult for your child
• B. This type of acting out behavior is normal for adolescents
• C. It is important to focus on your child's needs at this difficult time
• D. A reaction of anger is your child's attempt to cope with this loss

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the child's anger as a coping mechanism helps validate their feelings and can open a dialogue for further support.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

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