Nursing Elites

1. What is the best response for the nurse when a 2-year-old boy begins to cry as the mother starts to leave?

• A. Let me read this book to you.
• B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation is to help the child understand that the separation is temporary. Waving bye-bye to mommy can be reassuring to the child and make the separation process easier. It acknowledges the child's feelings while providing a positive and comforting interaction. Choice A may distract the child temporarily but doesn't address the underlying issue of separation anxiety. Choice B is inaccurate as children may continue to cry even after the parent leaves. Choice C diminishes the child's emotions and doesn't offer a supportive approach.

2. The healthcare provider plans to screen only the highest risk children for scoliosis. Which group of children should the healthcare provider screen first?

• A. Girls between ages 10 and 14.
• B. Boys between ages 10 and 14.
• C. Boys and girls between 12 and 14.
• D. Boys and girls between 8 and 12.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: The healthcare provider plans to screen only the highest risk children for scoliosis. Which group of children should the healthcare provider screen first? Girls between ages 10 and 14 are at the highest risk for scoliosis and should be screened first as they have a higher incidence of developing scoliosis during their adolescent growth spurt. Early detection and intervention can help prevent further complications associated with scoliosis. Boys between ages 10 and 14 (choice B) are not at the highest risk compared to girls in the same age group. Boys and girls between 12 and 14 (choice C) are at a lower risk compared to girls between ages 10 and 14. Boys and girls between 8 and 12 (choice D) are at a lower risk group compared to girls between ages 10 and 14.

3. A 2-year-old is admitted to the hospital with possible encephalitis, and a lumbar puncture is scheduled. Which information should the nurse provide this child concerning the procedure?

• A. Describe the side-lying, knees to chest position that must be assumed during the procedure.
• B. Tell the child to expect loud clicking noises during the procedure that may be slightly annoying.
• C. Reassure the child that there will be no restrictions on activity after the procedure is completed.
• D. Explain that fluids cannot be taken for 8 hours before the procedure and for 4 hours after the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Describing the side-lying, knees to chest position that must be assumed during the lumbar puncture procedure is essential as it helps the child understand what to expect, promotes cooperation, and reduces anxiety. This position is necessary for the procedure to be performed safely and effectively. Choice B is incorrect because mentioning loud clicking noises may increase the child's anxiety. Choice C is incorrect because there may be restrictions on activity after the procedure, depending on individual cases. Choice D is also incorrect as it provides information about fluid intake restrictions that are not directly related to the procedure itself.

4. A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin at a dose of 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?

• A. 1875 mg
• B. 625 mg
• C. 2000 mg
• D. 1500 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose for each administration, you first need to find the total daily dose: 300 mg/kg * 25 kg = 7500 mg/day. Since this total dose is divided into equally divided doses every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in 24 hours. Therefore, 7500 mg ÷ 6 doses = 1250 mg per dose. The nurse should administer 1250 mg every 4 hours, resulting in a total of 1875 mg for each dose in a 24-hour period. Choice A, 1875 mg, is the correct answer. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the total daily dose and the frequency of administration. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not the calculated dosage based on the given parameters. Choice D, 1500 mg, is also incorrect as it does not reflect the correct dosage calculation for each dose.

5. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Start IV fluids.
• C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

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