Nursing Elites

1. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist agent albuterol (Proventil). The child's mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son's airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
• B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
• C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
• D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's priority is to reassure the mother that she is using albuterol correctly to open her son's airways during episodes of difficulty breathing. This reassurance helps build trust and ensures that the child receives the intended benefit of the medication. The answer choice recommending immediate evaluation (A) is not appropriate at this point as the mother is using the medication as prescribed. Advising about overuse causing chronic bronchitis (B) is incorrect and may cause unnecessary alarm. Confirming that the medication helps reduce airway inflammation (D) is not the best response because albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist used primarily for bronchodilation in acute asthma exacerbations, rather than for reducing inflammation.

2. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left to right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

3. What action should be taken by the healthcare provider for a child who has ingested a corrosive product?

• A. Induce vomiting using Ipecac to remove the corrosive agent.
• B. Administer vinegar or lemon juice to neutralize the caustic agent.
• C. Give activated charcoal to decontaminate the stomach.
• D. Telephone the poison control center and follow their advice.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of corrosive product ingestion, it is crucial to contact the poison control center for guidance. Inducing vomiting or attempting to neutralize the agent can lead to further harm. The poison control center professionals are trained to provide specific instructions tailored to the situation, ensuring the best possible outcome for the child. Therefore, the correct action is to call the poison control center for appropriate advice. Inducing vomiting can cause additional damage by re-exposing the esophagus and mouth to the corrosive substance. Administering vinegar or lemon juice is not recommended as it may worsen the situation by causing a chemical reaction. While activated charcoal can be useful in some cases of poisoning, it is not recommended for corrosive substances as it is ineffective in binding to them.

4. A child receives a prescription for amantadine 42 mg PO BID. Amantadine is available as a 50 mg/5 mL syrup. Using a supplied calibrated measuring device, how many mL should be administered per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 4.2 mL
• B. 5 mL
• C. 3.6 mL
• D. 4 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL per dose, divide the prescribed dose (42 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (50 mg/5 mL) and then convert the result to mL. 42 mg / 50 mg = 0.84. To find the amount in mL, multiply 0.84 by 5 mL, which equals 4.2 mL. Therefore, 4.2 mL should be administered per dose.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant's clinical picture?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis.
• B. Respiratory acidosis.
• C. Metabolic acidosis.
• D. Respiratory alkalosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis leads to obstruction at the outlet of the stomach, causing frequent vomiting and loss of stomach acids. This results in a loss of hydrochloric acid and hydrogen ions, leading to metabolic alkalosis due to an increase in serum bicarbonate levels. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic alkalosis. Choice B, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect as it is not typically associated with pyloric stenosis. Choice C, metabolic acidosis, is incorrect because the loss of stomach acids in pyloric stenosis leads to metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D, respiratory alkalosis, is also incorrect as it is not the usual consequence of pyloric stenosis.

Similar Questions