Nursing Elites

1. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist agent albuterol (Proventil). The child's mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son's airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
• B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
• C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
• D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's priority is to reassure the mother that she is using albuterol correctly to open her son's airways during episodes of difficulty breathing. This reassurance helps build trust and ensures that the child receives the intended benefit of the medication. The answer choice recommending immediate evaluation (A) is not appropriate at this point as the mother is using the medication as prescribed. Advising about overuse causing chronic bronchitis (B) is incorrect and may cause unnecessary alarm. Confirming that the medication helps reduce airway inflammation (D) is not the best response because albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist used primarily for bronchodilation in acute asthma exacerbations, rather than for reducing inflammation.

2. When observing a distraught mother scolding her 3-year-old son for wetting his pants in the hallway of a pediatric unit, what initial action should the nurse take?

• A. Suggest that the mother consult a pediatric nephrologist.
• B. Provide disposable training pants while calming the mother.
• C. Refer the mother to a community parent education program.
• D. Inform the mother that toilet training is slower for boys.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse's initial action should be to provide disposable training pants to manage the immediate issue of wetting while also calming the mother. This approach addresses the current distressing situation and offers a practical solution to alleviate the mother's concerns.

3. A child with Graves' disease who is taking propranolol (Inderal) is seen in the clinic. The nurse should monitor the child for which therapeutic response?

• A. Increased weight gain
• B. Decreased heart rate
• C. Reduced headaches
• D. Diminished fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Decreased heart rate.' Propranolol is a beta-blocker commonly used to manage symptoms of hyperthyroidism, including tachycardia. Monitoring for a decreased heart rate is important as it indicates the drug's therapeutic response in controlling the elevated heart rate associated with Graves' disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, reduced headaches, and diminished fatigue are not typical therapeutic responses to propranolol in the context of managing Graves' disease.

4. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effects of thyroid therapy used to treat a 5-month-old with hypothyroidism. Which behavior indicates that the treatment has been effective?

• A. Laughs readily, turns from back to side.
• B. Has strong Moro and tonic neck reflexes.
• C. Keeps fists clenched, opens hands when grasping an object.
• D. Can lift head, but not chest when lying on abdomen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ability to laugh readily and turn from back to side indicates the effectiveness of thyroid therapy and normal development in a 5-month-old. These behaviors suggest improved muscle tone and motor skills, which are positive outcomes of thyroid hormone replacement therapy for hypothyroidism. Choices B, C, and D describe developmental milestones that are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of thyroid therapy in treating hypothyroidism in a 5-month-old.

5. The child is 3 years old and is 2 hours postop from a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery. Which assessment finding indicates arterial obstruction?

• A. Blood pressure is decreasing, and the pulse is rapid and irregular.
• B. The right foot feels cool to the touch and appears pale and blanched.
• C. The pulse distal to the femoral artery is weaker in the left foot than the right foot.
• D. The pressure dressing at the right femoral area is damp and oozing blood.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A cool, pale, and blanched foot is indicative of arterial obstruction, leading to poor blood flow. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Monitoring for signs of arterial compromise, such as color changes, temperature, and capillary refill, is crucial in detecting and managing vascular complications post-cardiac catheterization. Choices A, C, and D do not directly indicate arterial obstruction. While a decreasing blood pressure and rapid, irregular pulse may suggest compromise, these findings are more nonspecific. A weaker pulse distal to the femoral artery indicates reduced perfusion but not necessarily arterial obstruction. Finally, a damp, oozing pressure dressing suggests a dressing issue rather than arterial obstruction.

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