Nursing Elites

1. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist agent albuterol (Proventil). The child's mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son's airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
• B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
• C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
• D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's priority is to reassure the mother that she is using albuterol correctly to open her son's airways during episodes of difficulty breathing. This reassurance helps build trust and ensures that the child receives the intended benefit of the medication. The answer choice recommending immediate evaluation (A) is not appropriate at this point as the mother is using the medication as prescribed. Advising about overuse causing chronic bronchitis (B) is incorrect and may cause unnecessary alarm. Confirming that the medication helps reduce airway inflammation (D) is not the best response because albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist used primarily for bronchodilation in acute asthma exacerbations, rather than for reducing inflammation.

2. The heart rate for a 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has steadily decreased over the last few hours, now it's 76 bpm, the previous reading 4 hours ago was 110 bpm. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation 94%.
• B. RR of 25 breaths/minute.
• C. Urine output 20 mL/hr.
• D. BP 70/40.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. A decrease in blood pressure may suggest poor cardiac output and compromised perfusion, requiring urgent medical attention. The other findings (oxygen saturation of 94%, RR of 25 breaths/minute, and urine output of 20 mL/hr) are within normal ranges for a 3-year-old and do not indicate immediate deterioration of the heart defect.

3. A child with Graves' disease who is taking propranolol (Inderal) is seen in the clinic. The nurse should monitor the child for which therapeutic response?

• A. Increased weight gain
• B. Decreased heart rate
• C. Reduced headaches
• D. Diminished fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a child with Graves' disease is prescribed propranolol (Inderal), the nurse should monitor for a decreased heart rate as a therapeutic response. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that acts to slow down the heart rate, which is beneficial in managing the symptoms of Graves' disease, such as tachycardia and other cardiovascular manifestations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because propranolol is not typically associated with increased weight gain, reduced headaches, or diminished fatigue as its primary therapeutic effect in this context.

4. During a routine assessment of a 3-year-old at a community health center, the healthcare professional should be alert for signs of autism spectrum disorder. Which behavior by the child should prompt further evaluation for a possible autistic spectrum disorder?

• A. Engages in odd repetitive behaviors
• B. Shows indifference to verbal stimulation
• C. Strokes the hair of a hand-held doll
• D. Has a history of temper tantrums

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Engaging in odd repetitive behaviors is a hallmark sign of autism spectrum disorder in children. These behaviors can include repetitive movements, insistence on sameness, or specific routines. Recognizing and addressing these behaviors early can help in providing appropriate interventions and support for the child.

5. What is the priority intervention for a 16-year-old client with a history of depression who is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of acetaminophen?

• A. Administer activated charcoal
• B. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring
• C. Prepare for gastric lavage
• D. Administer N-acetylcysteine as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client who has taken an acetaminophen overdose is to administer N-acetylcysteine promptly. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and helps prevent liver damage. Activated charcoal may be used in certain cases, but N-acetylcysteine takes precedence as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen. Continuous cardiac monitoring and gastric lavage are not the priority interventions for acetaminophen overdose. Administering N-acetylcysteine is crucial to prevent liver damage and address the overdose, making it the most urgent action in this scenario.

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