Nursing Elites

1. A 9-week-old infant is scheduled for cleft lip repair. Which information is most important for the nurse to convey to the surgeon before transporting the infant to the surgical suite?

• A. Red blood cell count of 2.3 million/mm³
• B. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm³
• C. Weight gain of 2 pounds since birth
• D. Urine specific gravity is 1.011

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a low red blood cell count may indicate anemia, which could pose risks during surgery. Anemia can affect oxygen delivery to tissues, impacting wound healing and overall surgical outcomes. The other options, such as white blood cell count, weight gain, and urine specific gravity, are less critical for immediate surgical considerations. White blood cell count is more related to infection risk postoperatively rather than immediate surgical risk. Weight gain reflects good overall growth but does not impact the immediate surgical situation. Urine specific gravity is more indicative of hydration status rather than immediate surgical risk.

2. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child who has been diagnosed with measles. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent the spread of infection?

• A. Administer antipyretics as prescribed
• B. Place the child in airborne isolation
• C. Encourage fluid intake
• D. Teach the parents about hand hygiene

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Measles is an airborne infection, so placing the child in airborne isolation is crucial to prevent the spread of the virus to others. Airborne isolation precautions help contain infectious respiratory droplets and reduce the risk of transmission to healthcare workers, other patients, and visitors. Administering antipyretics, encouraging fluid intake, and teaching parents about hand hygiene are important aspects of care but do not directly address the prevention of the spread of measles, which requires airborne precautions.

3. What information should be reinforced with the parents about introducing solid foods to their infant?

• A. Begin with one tablespoon of the food.
• B. Introduce each food 4 to 7 days apart.
• C. Mix the new food with rice cereal.
• D. Remove foods when the infant refuses them.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Introducing solid foods 4 to 7 days apart is crucial as it allows time to identify any allergic reactions or intolerances to specific foods. This gradual introduction helps parents monitor their infant's response to new foods and pinpoint any potential issues, ensuring the infant's safety and well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because starting with one tablespoon of the food, mixing new food with rice cereal, and removing foods when the infant refuses them are not recommended practices for introducing solid foods to infants.

4. A 4-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother because she has had a cold for 2 to 3 days and woke up this morning with a hacking cough and difficulty breathing. Which additional assessment finding should alert the nurse that the child is in acute respiratory distress?

• A. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds.
• B. Diaphragmatic respiration.
• C. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute.
• D. Flaring of the nares.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a clinical sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. It indicates an increased effort to breathe and is a crucial finding that requires immediate attention, as it signifies the child is having difficulty breathing and may be in respiratory distress. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds may be present in conditions like pneumonia but do not specifically indicate acute respiratory distress. Diaphragmatic respiration is a normal breathing pattern and not a sign of distress. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute in a 4-month-old infant is within the expected range, so it does not necessarily indicate acute respiratory distress.

5. The child is 3 years old and is 2 hours postop from a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery. Which assessment finding indicates arterial obstruction?

• A. Blood pressure is decreasing, and the pulse is rapid and irregular.
• B. The right foot feels cool to the touch and appears pale and blanched.
• C. The pulse distal to the femoral artery is weaker in the left foot than the right foot.
• D. The pressure dressing at the right femoral area is damp and oozing blood.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A cool, pale, and blanched foot is indicative of arterial obstruction, leading to poor blood flow. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Monitoring for signs of arterial compromise, such as color changes, temperature, and capillary refill, is crucial in detecting and managing vascular complications post-cardiac catheterization. Choices A, C, and D do not directly indicate arterial obstruction. While a decreasing blood pressure and rapid, irregular pulse may suggest compromise, these findings are more nonspecific. A weaker pulse distal to the femoral artery indicates reduced perfusion but not necessarily arterial obstruction. Finally, a damp, oozing pressure dressing suggests a dressing issue rather than arterial obstruction.

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