Nursing Elites

1. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario since the heart rate of 128 bpm is within an acceptable range for a 2-year-old child with heart failure. Monitoring for signs of digoxin toxicity is important; however, the immediate action required is to administer the scheduled dose as prescribed based on the heart rate assessment.

2. A 15-year-old adolescent with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital for severe weight loss. The nurse notes that the client has dry skin, brittle hair, and is severely underweight. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the client
• B. Monitor the client’s vital signs frequently
• C. Initiate a structured eating plan
• D. Provide education about healthy eating habits

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention for the nurse is to initiate a structured eating plan. Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by severe food restriction, which can lead to malnutrition and severe weight loss. By starting a structured eating plan, the nurse can ensure the client receives the necessary nutrition to begin the process of weight restoration and recovery. Monitoring vital signs is essential, but without addressing the nutrition deficiency, vital signs may not improve significantly. Establishing a therapeutic relationship is crucial for long-term care but may not address the immediate risk of malnutrition. Providing education about healthy eating habits is important but may not be effective initially due to the severity of the client's condition.

3. A 7-year-old child with type 1 diabetes is brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The nurse notes that the child's blood glucose level is 350 mg/dL. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
• B. Administer insulin as prescribed
• C. Monitor the child's urine output
• D. Check the child's urine for ketones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with type 1 diabetes presenting with abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a high blood glucose level, the priority is to administer IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which are crucial in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering insulin without addressing fluid deficits can lead to further complications. While monitoring urine output and checking for ketones are important steps in the care of a child with diabetes, the immediate focus should be on correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances through IV fluid administration to stabilize the child's condition.

4. What is the best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave?

• A. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
• B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave is to wave bye-bye to mommy. This action helps the child understand that the separation is temporary and gives him a sense of closure. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes the behavior of two-year-olds. Choice C may invalidate the child's feelings by telling him to 'be a big boy' instead of acknowledging his emotions and providing comfort.

5. A 9-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath. The nurse notes that the child has a history of iron-deficiency anemia. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer iron supplements as prescribed
• B. Monitor the child’s hemoglobin levels
• C. Educate the parents about dietary sources of iron
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with a history of iron-deficiency anemia presenting with symptoms of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, the priority action for the nurse is to administer iron supplements as prescribed. Iron supplementation is essential to treat iron-deficiency anemia and improve the child's symptoms promptly. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is important but administering iron supplements takes precedence to address the underlying cause. Educating parents about dietary iron sources is valuable for prevention but not the immediate priority. Notifying the healthcare provider may be necessary but should not delay the initiation of treatment with iron supplements.

Similar Questions