Nursing Elites

1. When developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Identify what activities, foods, and toys the child enjoys
• B. Assess the child's previous reactions to punishment
• C. Offer the child positive feedback
• D. Involve other children on the unit in describing the token system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first step in developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy is to identify what activities, foods, and toys the child enjoys. Understanding the child's motivations is crucial in creating an effective behavior modification plan tailored to his interests and preferences, which can help in positively reinforcing desired behaviors.

2. A two-year-old child with heart failure is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario as the heart rate of 128 bpm falls within the acceptable range for a two-year-old child with heart failure. It indicates that the child may benefit from the therapeutic effects of digoxin. Monitoring the heart rate closely after administration is essential to ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is within the acceptable range. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not needed since the heart rate is already within the expected parameters. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not the immediate action required in this case where the heart rate is within the normal range.

3. After observing a mother giving her 11-month-old ferrous sulfate followed by two ounces of orange juice, what should the nurse do next?

• A. Suggest placing the iron drops in the orange juice and feed the infant.
• B. Advise the mother to follow the iron drops with formula instead of orange juice.
• C. Instruct the mother to feed the infant nothing in the next 30 minutes after the iron.
• D. Give positive feedback about the way she administered the sulfate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing positive feedback is essential in reinforcing correct behaviors. By praising the mother for properly administering the ferrous sulfate to her 11-month-old, the nurse can encourage her to continue following the correct procedure. This positive reinforcement can boost the mother's confidence and adherence to the recommended administration method, ultimately benefiting the infant's health.

4. A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the clinic, concerned about frequent vomiting after feeding. The practical nurse (PN) suspects gastroesophageal reflux (GER). Which recommendation should the PN provide to the mother?

• A. Feed the infant in a prone position.
• B. Provide larger, less frequent feedings.
• C. Keep the infant upright for 30 minutes after feeding.
• D. Offer only formula thickened with rice cereal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct recommendation for reducing symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux (GER) in infants is to keep the infant upright for 30 minutes after feeding. This position helps prevent the backflow of stomach contents, alleviating symptoms of reflux. Placing the infant in a prone position or providing larger, less frequent feedings may worsen symptoms by increasing the likelihood of regurgitation. Offering only formula thickened with rice cereal is not the first-line intervention for GER and should not be recommended initially.

5. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist agent albuterol (Proventil). The child's mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son's airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
• B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
• C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
• D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's priority is to reassure the mother that she is using albuterol correctly to open her son's airways during episodes of difficulty breathing. This reassurance helps build trust and ensures that the child receives the intended benefit of the medication. The answer choice recommending immediate evaluation (A) is not appropriate at this point as the mother is using the medication as prescribed. Advising about overuse causing chronic bronchitis (B) is incorrect and may cause unnecessary alarm. Confirming that the medication helps reduce airway inflammation (D) is not the best response because albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist used primarily for bronchodilation in acute asthma exacerbations, rather than for reducing inflammation.

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