during a follow up clinical visit a mother tells the nurse that her 5 month old son who had surgical correction for tetralogy of fallot has rapid brea
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pediatric HESI Quizlet

1. During a follow-up clinical visit, a mother tells the nurse that her 5-month-old son, who had surgical correction for tetralogy of Fallot, has rapid breathing, often takes a long time to eat, and requires frequent rest periods. The infant is not crying while being held, and his growth is in the expected range. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Auscultating the heart and lungs while the infant is held is the most appropriate intervention to assess his current condition. This action allows the nurse to gather important information regarding the cardiovascular and respiratory status of the infant, which is crucial in evaluating his post-surgical recovery and overall well-being. Option A is incorrect as stimulating the infant to cry intentionally is not necessary and could cause distress. Option C is incorrect as the infant's growth is within the expected range, indicating no signs of failure to thrive. Option D is incorrect as obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram is not the initial intervention needed in this situation; assessing the heart and lungs through auscultation is more immediate and informative.

2. The mother of a one-month-old calls the clinic to report that the back of her infant's head is flat. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Positioning the infant on the stomach occasionally when awake and active can help prevent flat spots on the head. This position allows for more natural movement and prevents prolonged pressure on one area of the head, reducing the risk of developing a flat spot. Turning the infant on the left side braced against the crib when sleeping (choice A) is not recommended as it does not address the issue of flat spots. Propping the infant in a sitting position with a cushion when not sleeping (choice B) may increase the risk of falls and is not suitable for a one-month-old. Placing a small pillow under the infant's head while lying on the back (choice C) should be avoided due to the risk of suffocation and sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).

3. A 4-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of ear pain and fever. The practical nurse suspects otitis media. Which symptom supports this suspicion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tugging at the ear is a common symptom in children with otitis media. It often indicates discomfort or pain in the ear, suggesting inflammation or infection in the middle ear. This behavior is frequently observed in young children who are unable to express their discomfort verbally, making it a significant clinical indicator for otitis media in this age group. Clear nasal discharge (Choice A) is more indicative of a cold or allergies, while a dry, hacking cough (Choice B) is not typically associated with otitis media. Although a sore throat (Choice D) can sometimes accompany ear infections, tugging at the ear is a more specific and reliable symptom in this case.

4. While teaching a parenting class to new parents, the nurse describes the needs of infants and toddlers regarding discipline and limit setting. What is the most important reason for implementing such parenting behaviors?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Implementing discipline and limit setting for infants and toddlers is primarily important as it provides them with a sense of security. This sense of security is crucial for their emotional and psychological development, helping them feel safe and supported as they explore the world around them. Choice A is incorrect because while developing social skills is important, the primary reason for discipline and limit setting in this context is to provide security. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the main reason for implementing discipline and limit setting. Choice D is incorrect as the primary focus is not about dealing with authority at this early stage of development.

5. A child receives a prescription for amantadine 42 mg PO BID. Amantadine is available as a 50 mg/5 mL syrup. Using a supplied calibrated measuring device, how many mL should be administered per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL per dose, divide the prescribed dose (42 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (50 mg/5 mL) and then convert the result to mL. 42 mg / 50 mg = 0.84. To find the amount in mL, multiply 0.84 by 5 mL, which equals 4.2 mL. Therefore, 4.2 mL should be administered per dose.

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