Nursing Elites

1. During a follow-up clinical visit, a mother tells the nurse that her 5-month-old son, who had surgical correction for tetralogy of Fallot, has rapid breathing, often takes a long time to eat, and requires frequent rest periods. The infant is not crying while being held, and his growth is in the expected range. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Stimulate the infant to cry to produce cyanosis
• B. Auscultate the heart and lungs while holding the infant
• C. Evaluate the infant for failure to thrive
• D. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Auscultating the heart and lungs while the infant is held is the most appropriate intervention to assess his current condition. This action allows the nurse to gather important information regarding the cardiovascular and respiratory status of the infant, which is crucial in evaluating his post-surgical recovery and overall well-being. Option A is incorrect as stimulating the infant to cry intentionally is not necessary and could cause distress. Option C is incorrect as the infant's growth is within the expected range, indicating no signs of failure to thrive. Option D is incorrect as obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram is not the initial intervention needed in this situation; assessing the heart and lungs through auscultation is more immediate and informative.

2. The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant. Which response requires further evaluation by the nurse?

• A. Has doubled birth weight.
• B. Turns head to locate sound.
• C. Plays peek-a-boo.
• D. Demonstrates startle reflex.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: At 6 months old, the startle reflex should diminish, so its persistence warrants further evaluation by the nurse. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate developmental milestones for a 6-month-old infant. By 6 months, infants typically double their birth weight, exhibit localization of sound by turning their head, and engage in interactive play like peek-a-boo.

3. When caring for a child experiencing severe asthma symptoms, which medication should the practical nurse anticipate being administered first?

• A. Inhaled corticosteroids.
• B. Oral corticosteroids.
• C. Short-acting beta agonists.
• D. Leukotriene receptor antagonists.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of acute asthma exacerbations, the first-line medication for quick relief of bronchoconstriction is a short-acting beta agonist, such as albuterol. These medications help to rapidly open up the airways, providing immediate relief to the patient. Inhaled corticosteroids are more commonly used for long-term control of asthma symptoms, while oral corticosteroids and leukotriene receptor antagonists are often reserved for more severe or chronic cases. Therefore, in a child experiencing severe asthma symptoms, the practical nurse should anticipate the administration of short-acting beta agonists as the initial intervention to provide quick relief and improve breathing.

4. When should the surgical correction of hypospadias in a newborn infant typically be done?

• A. Repair should be done by one month to prevent bladder infection.
• B. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
• C. Repairs typically should be done before the child is potty trained.
• D. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Surgical repairs for hypospadias are typically recommended to be performed before the child is potty trained. This timing helps in avoiding complications, ensures better outcomes, and makes the surgical process smoother. Early correction also minimizes the psychological impact on the child regarding genital differences and can improve long-term psychological well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because repairing hypospadias at one month to prevent bladder infection, after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra, or delaying the repair until school age to reduce castration fears are not the standard recommendations. The optimal timing for surgical correction is before the child is potty trained to achieve the best results and psychological outcomes.

5. What action should be taken by the healthcare provider for a child who has ingested a corrosive product?

• A. Induce vomiting using Ipecac to remove the corrosive agent.
• B. Administer vinegar or lemon juice to neutralize the caustic agent.
• C. Give activated charcoal to decontaminate the stomach.
• D. Telephone the poison control center and follow their advice.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of corrosive product ingestion, it is crucial to contact the poison control center for guidance. Inducing vomiting or attempting to neutralize the agent can lead to further harm. The poison control center professionals are trained to provide specific instructions tailored to the situation, ensuring the best possible outcome for the child. Therefore, the correct action is to call the poison control center for appropriate advice. Inducing vomiting can cause additional damage by re-exposing the esophagus and mouth to the corrosive substance. Administering vinegar or lemon juice is not recommended as it may worsen the situation by causing a chemical reaction. While activated charcoal can be useful in some cases of poisoning, it is not recommended for corrosive substances as it is ineffective in binding to them.

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