Nursing Elites

1. A 7-year-old child with sickle cell anemia presents to the emergency department with severe pain in the arms and legs. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed pain medication
• B. Apply warm compresses to the affected areas
• C. Encourage the child to drink fluids
• D. Monitor the child’s oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a sickle cell crisis, pain management is a priority due to the severe pain experienced by the child. Administering prescribed pain medication is crucial to alleviate the pain and provide comfort to the child. Once pain is controlled, other comfort measures like applying warm compresses and encouraging fluid intake can be implemented. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important but not the priority action when dealing with severe pain in a sickle cell crisis.

2. A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin at a dose of 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?

• A. 1875 mg
• B. 625 mg
• C. 2000 mg
• D. 1500 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose for each administration, you first need to find the total daily dose: 300 mg/kg * 25 kg = 7500 mg/day. Since this total dose is divided into equally divided doses every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in 24 hours. Therefore, 7500 mg ÷ 6 doses = 1250 mg per dose. The nurse should administer 1250 mg every 4 hours, resulting in a total of 1875 mg for each dose in a 24-hour period. Choice A, 1875 mg, is the correct answer. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the total daily dose and the frequency of administration. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not the calculated dosage based on the given parameters. Choice D, 1500 mg, is also incorrect as it does not reflect the correct dosage calculation for each dose.

3. The nurse determines that an infant admitted for surgical repair of an inguinal hernia voids a urinary stream from the ventral surface of the penis. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Document the finding
• B. Palpate scrotum for testicular descent
• C. Assess for bladder distension
• D. Auscultate bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to document the finding. The infant voiding a urinary stream from the ventral surface of the penis suggests hypospadias, a condition where the urethral opening is on the underside of the penis. This finding is crucial information that needs to be documented for further evaluation. Palpating the scrotum for testicular descent, assessing for bladder distension, and auscultating bowel sounds are not appropriate actions based on the presented scenario and do not address the specific concern of the urinary stream location.

4. A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her 17-year-old mother. When the nurse observes that the child is drinking sweetened soda from her bottle, what information should the nurse discuss with this mother?

• A. A 2-year-old should be speaking in 2-word phrases
• B. Dental caries is associated with drinking soda
• C. Drinking soda is related to childhood obesity
• D. Toddlers should be sleeping 10 hours a night

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dental caries are a common concern when children consume sweetened sodas regularly.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left to right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

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