Nursing Elites

1. A 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has had a steady decrease in heart rate, now at 76 bpm from 110 bpm four hours ago. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%.
• B. Respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute.
• C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• D. Blood pressure of 70/40.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. The blood pressure of 70/40 is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not indicate immediate danger. A respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. Urine output of 20 mL/hr is low but may not be the most concerning finding in this scenario compared to the drop in blood pressure.

2. The practical nurse is providing care for a toddler who has just returned from surgery for a tonsillectomy. Which intervention is a priority in the immediate postoperative period?

• A. Offer clear fluids frequently.
• B. Encourage the child to cough and deep breathe.
• C. Monitor for frequent swallowing.
• D. Apply a warm compress to the throat area.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring for frequent swallowing is a priority intervention in the immediate postoperative period after a tonsillectomy. Frequent swallowing may indicate bleeding from the surgical site, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications such as hemorrhage. Offering clear fluids frequently may not be appropriate immediately after surgery. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may increase the risk of bleeding. Applying a warm compress to the throat area is not recommended as it can increase blood flow to the surgical site, potentially causing bleeding.

3. What is the priority intervention for a 16-year-old client with a history of depression who is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of acetaminophen?

• A. Administer activated charcoal
• B. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring
• C. Prepare for gastric lavage
• D. Administer N-acetylcysteine as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client who has taken an acetaminophen overdose is to administer N-acetylcysteine promptly. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and helps prevent liver damage. Activated charcoal may be used in certain cases, but N-acetylcysteine takes precedence as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen. Continuous cardiac monitoring and gastric lavage are not the priority interventions for acetaminophen overdose. Administering N-acetylcysteine is crucial to prevent liver damage and address the overdose, making it the most urgent action in this scenario.

4. When should the surgical correction of hypospadias in a newborn infant typically be done?

• A. Repair should be done by one month to prevent bladder infection.
• B. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
• C. Repairs typically should be done before the child is potty trained.
• D. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Surgical repairs for hypospadias are typically recommended to be performed before the child is potty trained. This timing helps in avoiding complications, ensures better outcomes, and makes the surgical process smoother. Early correction also minimizes the psychological impact on the child regarding genital differences and can improve long-term psychological well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because repairing hypospadias at one month to prevent bladder infection, after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra, or delaying the repair until school age to reduce castration fears are not the standard recommendations. The optimal timing for surgical correction is before the child is potty trained to achieve the best results and psychological outcomes.

5. A child with a fever of 39°C (102.2°F) and a sore throat is brought to the clinic. The practical nurse suspects the child has streptococcal pharyngitis. Which diagnostic test should the practical nurse prepare the child for?

• A. Rapid antigen detection test.
• B. Throat culture.
• C. Complete blood count (CBC).
• D. Chest X-ray.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A rapid antigen detection test is the appropriate diagnostic test for suspected streptococcal pharyngitis. This test is commonly used due to its quick results, helping in the prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment of the condition. It specifically detects the presence of streptococcal antigens in the throat, aiding in confirming the diagnosis and guiding the healthcare provider in determining the most suitable treatment plan. Throat culture (Choice B) is a confirmatory test but is not as rapid as the rapid antigen detection test. Complete blood count (Choice C) and Chest X-ray (Choice D) are not specific tests for streptococcal pharyngitis and would not aid in confirming the diagnosis.

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