HESI RN
Pediatric HESI Quizlet
1. A mother brings her 8-month-old baby boy to the clinic because he has been vomiting and having diarrhea for the last 3 days. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to make?
- A. Assess the infant's abdomen for tenderness
- B. Determine if the infant has been exposed to a virus
- C. Measure the infant’s pulse
- D. Evaluate the infant’s cry
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial assessment in this scenario is to measure the infant's pulse. Pulse measurement is essential to evaluate the severity of dehydration, which can be a significant concern in a baby experiencing vomiting and diarrhea for several days. Assessing the abdomen for tenderness may provide information on potential causes of symptoms but is not as urgent as monitoring hydration status. Determining exposure to a virus is important for infection control but does not directly address the immediate issue of dehydration. Evaluating the infant's cry, although a form of communication, does not provide critical information regarding the baby's physiological status in this situation.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to suture a 10-year-old child with a lacerated forehead. Both parents and a 12-year-old sibling are present at the child's bedside. Which instruction best supports family involvement?
- A. While waiting for the healthcare provider, only one visitor may stay with the child.
- B. All of you should leave while the healthcare provider sutures the child's forehead.
- C. It is best if the sibling goes to the waiting room until the suturing is completed.
- D. Please decide who will stay when the healthcare provider begins suturing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Involving the family members in deciding who will stay when the healthcare provider begins suturing supports family involvement and helps reduce anxiety for the child. This approach respects the family's dynamics and preferences, promoting a supportive environment during the procedure.
3. A 13-year-old client with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL. The client reports feeling thirsty and having frequent urination. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed
- B. Encourage the client to drink water
- C. Check the client’s urine for ketones
- D. Reinforce the importance of diet and exercise
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with type 1 diabetes presenting with hyperglycemia (blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL) and symptoms of thirst and frequent urination, the priority action for the nurse is to administer insulin as prescribed. Insulin helps lower the blood glucose level and prevents complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. While encouraging hydration is essential, administering insulin is crucial to address the high blood glucose levels. Checking urine for ketones is important in diabetic management but is secondary to administering insulin in this scenario. Reinforcing diet and exercise importance is vital for diabetes management but not the priority in acute hyperglycemia.
4. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant's clinical picture?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis.
- B. Respiratory acidosis.
- C. Metabolic acidosis.
- D. Respiratory alkalosis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pyloric stenosis leads to obstruction at the outlet of the stomach, causing frequent vomiting and loss of stomach acids. This results in a loss of hydrochloric acid and hydrogen ions, leading to metabolic alkalosis due to an increase in serum bicarbonate levels. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic alkalosis. Choice B, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect as it is not typically associated with pyloric stenosis. Choice C, metabolic acidosis, is incorrect because the loss of stomach acids in pyloric stenosis leads to metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D, respiratory alkalosis, is also incorrect as it is not the usual consequence of pyloric stenosis.
5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?
- A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
- B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
- C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
- D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.
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