the nurse is assessing a 4 year old child who is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup the childs parent reports that the child has been more ir
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pediatric Practice Exam

1. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child who is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup. The child’s parent reports that the child has been more irritable and less active over the past week. The nurse notes a petechial rash on the child’s trunk and extremities. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the child's presentation with irritability, decreased activity, and a petechial rash raises concern for a serious condition like meningitis. Petechial rash can be indicative of meningitis or other critical illnesses. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management. Asking about recent exposure to contagious diseases may be relevant later but is not the most urgent action. Reviewing the child's immunization record and measuring the temperature can provide valuable information but should not take precedence over the need to address the potential serious condition indicated by the petechial rash.

2. In a 6-year-old child with asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and using accessory muscles to breathe with a peak flow reading in the red zone, what should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a 6-year-old child with asthma who is experiencing difficulty breathing, using accessory muscles to breathe, and has a peak flow reading in the red zone is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator first. Nebulized bronchodilators work rapidly to open up the airways, providing immediate relief and improving breathing. This intervention is crucial in addressing the acute respiratory distress the child is facing. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or contacting the healthcare provider can be considered after the initial administration of the bronchodilator, as they are not the primary interventions needed to manage the child's acute respiratory distress.

3. The healthcare provider is evaluating diet teaching for a client who has nontropical sprue (celiac disease). Choosing which food indicates that the teaching has been effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Creamed corn is a gluten-free food, making it a suitable option for clients with celiac disease. This choice indicates effective diet teaching as it aligns with the dietary restrictions necessary for managing the condition. Pancakes, rye crackers, and cooked oatmeal contain gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, they are not suitable choices and would not indicate effective teaching for a client with this condition.

4. A child with leukemia is admitted for chemotherapy, and the nursing diagnosis 'altered nutrition, less than body requirements related to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting' is identified. Which intervention should the nurse include in this child's plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allowing the child to eat any food desired and tolerated is the most appropriate intervention for a child with altered nutrition due to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. It is crucial to prioritize maintaining adequate nutritional intake, and by allowing the child to choose foods they desire and can tolerate, the chances of improving their nutritional status increase. This approach helps in ensuring that the child receives necessary nutrients during chemotherapy, even if their appetite is affected by the treatment. Encouraging a variety of large portions of food at every meal (Choice A) may overwhelm the child and worsen their symptoms. Recommending eating the food as siblings eat at home (Choice C) may not align with the child's preferences and tolerances. Restricting food brought from fast food restaurants (Choice D) is not suitable as it may limit the child's options and preferences during a challenging time.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

Similar Questions

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