HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child who is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup. The child’s parent reports that the child has been more irritable and less active over the past week. The nurse notes a petechial rash on the child’s trunk and extremities. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Ask the parent about recent exposure to contagious diseases
- B. Review the child’s immunization record
- C. Measure the child’s temperature
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the child's presentation with irritability, decreased activity, and a petechial rash raises concern for a serious condition like meningitis. Petechial rash can be indicative of meningitis or other critical illnesses. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management. Asking about recent exposure to contagious diseases may be relevant later but is not the most urgent action. Reviewing the child's immunization record and measuring the temperature can provide valuable information but should not take precedence over the need to address the potential serious condition indicated by the petechial rash.
2. A 12-year-old child with type 1 diabetes is under the nurse's care. The child’s parent asks how to prevent hypoglycemia during physical activity. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. Give your child extra insulin before exercise
- B. Make sure your child eats a snack before exercise
- C. Limit your child’s physical activity to avoid hypoglycemia
- D. Monitor your child’s blood glucose levels after exercise
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most effective way to prevent hypoglycemia during physical activity in a child with type 1 diabetes is to ensure they eat a snack before exercising. Eating a snack before exercise helps maintain blood glucose levels by providing additional glucose for energy during physical activity, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia. Giving extra insulin before exercise (Choice A) can increase the risk of hypoglycemia as it lowers blood glucose levels further. Limiting physical activity (Choice C) is not recommended as exercise is important for overall health. Monitoring blood glucose levels after exercise (Choice D) is essential but does not directly prevent hypoglycemia during physical activity.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant's clinical picture?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis.
- B. Respiratory acidosis.
- C. Metabolic acidosis.
- D. Respiratory alkalosis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pyloric stenosis leads to obstruction at the outlet of the stomach, causing frequent vomiting and loss of stomach acids. This results in a loss of hydrochloric acid and hydrogen ions, leading to metabolic alkalosis due to an increase in serum bicarbonate levels. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic alkalosis. Choice B, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect as it is not typically associated with pyloric stenosis. Choice C, metabolic acidosis, is incorrect because the loss of stomach acids in pyloric stenosis leads to metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D, respiratory alkalosis, is also incorrect as it is not the usual consequence of pyloric stenosis.
4. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?
- A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
- B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
- C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
- D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left to right shunt
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.
5. What is the best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave?
- A. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
- B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
- C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
- D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave is to wave bye-bye to mommy. This action helps the child understand that the separation is temporary and gives him a sense of closure. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes the behavior of two-year-olds. Choice C may invalidate the child's feelings by telling him to 'be a big boy' instead of acknowledging his emotions and providing comfort.
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