Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child who is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup. The child’s parent reports that the child has been more irritable and less active over the past week. The nurse notes a petechial rash on the child’s trunk and extremities. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Ask the parent about recent exposure to contagious diseases
• B. Review the child’s immunization record
• C. Measure the child’s temperature
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the child's presentation with irritability, decreased activity, and a petechial rash raises concern for a serious condition like meningitis. Petechial rash can be indicative of meningitis or other critical illnesses. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management. Asking about recent exposure to contagious diseases may be relevant later but is not the most urgent action. Reviewing the child's immunization record and measuring the temperature can provide valuable information but should not take precedence over the need to address the potential serious condition indicated by the petechial rash.

2. What information should the nurse provide the parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) who are concerned about having more children?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
• B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
• C. The mother's lack of the protein dystrophin can impact the XXXX muscle groups in males.
• D. Birth trauma during a breech vaginal birth can damage the spinal cord, resulting in muscle weakness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects male children in the family. Since it is X-linked, sons inherit the mutation from their mothers who are carriers of the abnormal gene. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that any future sons they have would have a 50% chance of inheriting the mutation and having DMD, while daughters would have a 50% chance of being carriers like the mother.

3. What should the nurse do first for a 6-year-old with asthma showing a prolonged expiratory phase, wheezing, and 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)?

• A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
• B. Encourage the child to cough and take deep breaths.
• C. Report the findings to the healthcare provider.
• D. Identify the triggers that precipitated this attack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority action in managing an acute asthma exacerbation in a child. Bronchodilators help to relax the muscles around the airways, opening them up and improving breathing. This intervention aims to address the immediate breathing difficulty and should be done promptly to provide relief for the child. Encouraging coughing and deep breaths (choice B) may worsen the child's condition by further constricting the airways. Reporting findings to the healthcare provider (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority in this acute situation. Identifying triggers (choice D) is crucial for long-term asthma management but is not the first step when managing an acute exacerbation.

4. The infant scheduled for reduction of intussusception passes a soft-formed brown stool the day before the procedure. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the parents that the infant needs to be NPO.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the passage of brown stool.
• C. Obtain a stool specimen for laboratory analysis.
• D. Ask the parents about recent changes in the infant's diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial when an infant scheduled for intussusception reduction passes a soft-formed brown stool as it may indicate spontaneous reduction of the intussusception. The healthcare provider needs to be informed to assess if the procedure is still necessary or if further evaluation is required. Instructing the parents that the infant needs to be NPO (nothing by mouth) is not the immediate action required in this situation. Obtaining a stool specimen for laboratory analysis is not necessary as the soft-formed brown stool is likely a result of the intussusception spontaneously reducing. Asking about recent changes in the infant's diet is not the most appropriate action when brown stool is passed before the procedure for intussusception reduction.

5. A 13-year-old client with type 1 diabetes is admitted to the hospital with a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL. The client is lethargic and has fruity-smelling breath. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed
• B. Start an IV infusion of normal saline
• C. Check the client’s urine for ketones
• D. Monitor the client’s vital signs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority action for the nurse is to start an IV infusion of normal saline. The client's presentation with lethargy, fruity-smelling breath, and high blood glucose level indicates diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). IV fluids are essential to correct dehydration and help stabilize the client's condition. Checking for ketones in the urine is important, but fluid replacement takes precedence to address the immediate risk of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering insulin is also a crucial intervention for DKA, but fluid resuscitation should first be initiated.

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