Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child who is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup. The child’s parent reports that the child has been more irritable and less active over the past week. The nurse notes a petechial rash on the child’s trunk and extremities. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Ask the parent about recent exposure to contagious diseases
• B. Review the child’s immunization record
• C. Measure the child’s temperature
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the child's presentation with irritability, decreased activity, and a petechial rash raises concern for a serious condition like meningitis. Petechial rash can be indicative of meningitis or other critical illnesses. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management. Asking about recent exposure to contagious diseases may be relevant later but is not the most urgent action. Reviewing the child's immunization record and measuring the temperature can provide valuable information but should not take precedence over the need to address the potential serious condition indicated by the petechial rash.

2. The nurse determines that an infant admitted for surgical repair of an inguinal hernia voids a urinary stream from the ventral surface of the penis. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Document the finding
• B. Palpate scrotum for testicular descent
• C. Assess for bladder distension
• D. Auscultate bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to document the finding. The infant voiding a urinary stream from the ventral surface of the penis suggests hypospadias, a condition where the urethral opening is on the underside of the penis. This finding is crucial information that needs to be documented for further evaluation. Palpating the scrotum for testicular descent, assessing for bladder distension, and auscultating bowel sounds are not appropriate actions based on the presented scenario and do not address the specific concern of the urinary stream location.

3. A child with sickle cell anemia is being treated for a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement?

• A. Apply cold packs to painful areas.
• B. Encourage increased fluid intake.
• C. Administer high doses of vitamin C.
• D. Provide low-calorie meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is crucial in managing vaso-occlusive crises in patients with sickle cell anemia. Dehydration can worsen these crises, so adequate hydration is essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes. Applying cold packs to painful areas may exacerbate vaso-occlusive crises by causing vasoconstriction. Administering high doses of vitamin C is not directly indicated for vaso-occlusive crises in sickle cell anemia. Providing low-calorie meals is not the priority during a vaso-occlusive crisis; maintaining adequate nutrition is important, but hydration takes precedence in this situation.

4. A mother brings her school-aged daughter to the pediatric clinic for evaluation of her anti-epileptic medication regimen. What information should the nurse provide to the mother?

• A. The medication dose will be tapered over a period of 2 weeks when being discontinued
• B. If seizures return, multiple medications will be prescribed for another 2 years
• C. A dose of valproic acid (Depakote) should be available in the event of status epilepticus
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and phenobarbital (Luminal) should be taken for life

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antiepileptic drugs should not be abruptly stopped as it may lead to seizure recurrence. Tapering the medication over a period of 2 weeks helps to prevent withdrawal effects and minimize the risk of seizures. Choice B is incorrect because starting multiple medications for seizure recurrence is not the first-line approach. Choice C is incorrect because valproic acid is not the first-line medication given in the event of status epilepticus. Choice D is incorrect because antiepileptic medications are usually evaluated over time and adjusted based on the individual's response; it is not always necessary to take them for life.

5. A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the clinic, concerned about frequent vomiting after feeding. The practical nurse (PN) suspects gastroesophageal reflux (GER). Which recommendation should the PN provide to the mother?

• A. Feed the infant in a prone position.
• B. Provide larger, less frequent feedings.
• C. Keep the infant upright for 30 minutes after feeding.
• D. Offer only formula thickened with rice cereal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct recommendation for reducing symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux (GER) in infants is to keep the infant upright for 30 minutes after feeding. This position helps prevent the backflow of stomach contents, alleviating symptoms of reflux. Placing the infant in a prone position or providing larger, less frequent feedings may worsen symptoms by increasing the likelihood of regurgitation. Offering only formula thickened with rice cereal is not the first-line intervention for GER and should not be recommended initially.

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