Nursing Elites

1. The nurse belongs to a professional nursing organization that provides social, educational, and political venues for nurses. The nurse has been active in this organization for almost two years, during which time she meets and works with nurses from several different nursing agencies and health care institutions to achieve a variety of goals, including obtaining advice regarding a personal career choice. This is an example of:

• A. professional nurturing.
• B. networking.
• C. mentoring.
• D. collegiality.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Networking involves the process of developing and using contacts throughout one's professional career for information, advice, and support. In this scenario, the nurse is actively engaging with other professionals from various institutions to achieve common goals and seek career advice, which aligns with the concept of networking. Professional nurturing and mentoring focus on providing support and guidance to colleagues, while collegiality refers to the camaraderie and rapport established among individuals through shared experiences, which is not the primary focus of the nurse's interaction in the given situation.

2. What instruction should a client who is about to undergo pelvic ultrasonography be given by a healthcare provider?

• A. "Urinate prior to the test."?
• B. "Have someone drive you home."?
• C. "Do not drink after midnight."?
• D. "Drink plenty of water."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client about to undergo pelvic ultrasonography is to 'Drink plenty of water.' A full bladder is required to serve as a landmark to define pelvic organs during the procedure. It is important to ensure the bladder is adequately filled. 'Urinate prior to the test' (Choice A) would not be appropriate as a full bladder is needed for better visualization. 'Have someone drive you home' (Choice B) is unnecessary as no sedation is given during the procedure, so the client can drive home on their own. 'Do not drink after midnight' (Choice C) is unrelated and not necessary for a pelvic ultrasonography examination.

3. Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are:

• A. the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client.
• B. those tasks that can be delegated to assistive personnel.
• C. those tasks that can be performed at the end of the shift.
• D. those tasks that can be performed at any time

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are those that are not urgent but still important, such as the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client. They do not impact the client's immediate physiological status but require attention. Intermediate priorities may need the skill level of an RN for completion and may have specific time requirements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the priority being intermediate doesn't mean it can be delegated, done at a specific time, or done at any time; it simply indicates a non-urgent but necessary task for the client's well-being.

4. A nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease. The client refuses the medication and tells the nurse that the medication causes abdominal cramping. The nurse responds, 'The medication is needed to prevent the spread of infection, and if you don't take it orally I will have to give it to you in an intramuscular injection.' Which statement accurately describes the nurse's response to the client?

• A. The nurse is justified in administering the medication by way of the intramuscular route because the client has a communicable disease.
• B. The nurse could be charged with assault.
• C. Assault is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. If a nurse threatens to give a client a medication that the client refuses or threatens to give a client an injection without the client's consent, the nurse may be charged with assault. Therefore, the nurse is not justified in administering the medication. Battery is any intentional touching without the client's consent.
• D. The nurse will be justified in administering the medication by the intramuscular route once a prescription has been obtained from the health care provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer explains the concept of assault, which is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. In the scenario provided, the nurse's statement about administering the medication via an intramuscular injection without the client's consent constitutes a threat, potentially falling under the definition of assault. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse's action is not automatically justified solely by the client having a communicable disease. Choice D is also incorrect because even with a prescription, the nurse cannot administer the medication without the client's consent. Choice C provides a detailed explanation distinguishing assault from battery, which helps in understanding the legal implications of the nurse's response in this situation.

5. Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia in the client with a spinal cord injury?

• A. sudden onset of headache
• B. flushed face
• C. hypotension
• D. nasal congestion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms due to an overactive autonomic nervous system. Hypotension is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia; instead, hypertension is a hallmark sign. Therefore, hypotension is the correct answer. Flushed face, sudden onset of headache, and nasal congestion are classic symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia caused by a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury. These symptoms result from the body's attempt to regulate blood pressure when the normal feedback loop is interrupted.

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