Nursing Elites

1. The nurse belongs to a professional nursing organization that provides social, educational, and political venues for nurses. The nurse has been active in this organization for almost two years, during which time she meets and works with nurses from several different nursing agencies and health care institutions to achieve a variety of goals, including obtaining advice regarding a personal career choice. This is an example of:

• A. professional nurturing.
• B. networking.
• C. mentoring.
• D. collegiality.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Networking involves the process of developing and using contacts throughout one's professional career for information, advice, and support. In this scenario, the nurse is actively engaging with other professionals from various institutions to achieve common goals and seek career advice, which aligns with the concept of networking. Professional nurturing and mentoring focus on providing support and guidance to colleagues, while collegiality refers to the camaraderie and rapport established among individuals through shared experiences, which is not the primary focus of the nurse's interaction in the given situation.

2. Once the nurse has made initial rounds and checked all of the assigned clients, which client should be cared for first?

• A. A client who is scheduled for surgery at 1 p.m.
• B. A client in skeletal traction who has just received pain medication
• C. A client scheduled for physical therapy at 11 a.m.
• D. A client who is able to perform activities of daily living independently

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority should be given to the client who is scheduled for surgery at 1 p.m. Preparing a client for surgery involves various tasks such as physical and emotional preparation, following healthcare provider instructions, and potential last-minute changes in the surgical schedule. It is crucial to ensure the client is adequately prepared. Providing care to a client who just received pain medication can wait until the medication takes effect. Clients who are independent in performing daily activities and those scheduled for physical therapy later in the morning are not as high a priority as preparing a client for an upcoming surgery. Therefore, the client scheduled for surgery should be cared for first to ensure all necessary preparations are completed.

3. A client is refusing to stay in the hospital because he does not agree with his healthcare treatment plan. The nurse stops the client from leaving due to concern for his health. Which of these legal charges could the nurse face?

• A. False imprisonment, as the nurse is not allowing the client to leave as he has decided to.
• B. Malpractice, as the nurse is intentionally keeping the patient from making his own decisions, thus violating that nursing duty.
• C. Invasion of privacy, as the nurse is getting involved in the patient's private decisions regarding healthcare.
• D. Negligence, as the nurse ignored the client's right to choose regarding his healthcare.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Refusing to let a client leave against medical advice (AMA) is a form of false imprisonment. In this scenario, the nurse is restricting the client's freedom of movement by preventing him from leaving the hospital, even though he has expressed his wish to leave. False imprisonment is a legal charge the nurse could face in this situation. The other options are incorrect: - Malpractice refers to professional negligence or failure to provide adequate care, not allowing a patient to make their own decisions. - Invasion of privacy involves disclosing confidential information without consent, not preventing a patient from leaving. - Negligence is the failure to take reasonable care, but it does not specifically address the act of restricting a patient from leaving against their wishes.

4. In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?

• A. ability to speak
• B. ability to hear
• C. oxygen saturation
• D. adventitious breath sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an emergency situation, assessing the client's ability to speak is crucial in determining airway obstruction. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed. Choices B and C, assessing the ability to hear and oxygen saturation, are not directly indicative of an airway obstruction. Choice D, adventitious breath sounds, may be present in conditions like asthma or pneumonia but are not specific to determining an airway obstruction.

5. Which hormone in the urine is specifically indicative of pregnancy?

• A. estrogen
• B. progesterone
• C. testosterone
• D. human chorionic gonadotropin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone specifically indicative of pregnancy as it is produced by the placenta after implantation. It can be detected in urine and blood samples to confirm pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone play crucial roles in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy but are not specific indicators of pregnancy on their own. Testosterone is a hormone primarily associated with male reproductive functions and is not directly related to pregnancy, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

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