Nursing Elites

1. The nurse belongs to a professional nursing organization that provides social, educational, and political venues for nurses. The nurse has been active in this organization for almost two years, during which time she meets and works with nurses from several different nursing agencies and health care institutions to achieve a variety of goals, including obtaining advice regarding a personal career choice. This is an example of:

• A. professional nurturing.
• B. networking.
• C. mentoring.
• D. collegiality.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Networking involves the process of developing and using contacts throughout one's professional career for information, advice, and support. In this scenario, the nurse is actively engaging with other professionals from various institutions to achieve common goals and seek career advice, which aligns with the concept of networking. Professional nurturing and mentoring focus on providing support and guidance to colleagues, while collegiality refers to the camaraderie and rapport established among individuals through shared experiences, which is not the primary focus of the nurse's interaction in the given situation.

2. Which of the following scenarios are considered violations of HIPAA laws?

• A. Discussing discharge plans with a client in a multi-bed recovery room with the curtain drawn around the client's bed.
• B. Looking up the medical information of a friend without permission.
• C. Checking on your spouse's medical record because you are listed as her power of attorney.
• D. Avoiding conversations about clients while in line in the cafeteria with a mutual caregiver of that client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Scenarios B and C are considered violations of HIPAA laws. Looking up the medical information of a friend who is not in your care, even with permission, is a violation of HIPAA as the friend is not your patient. Checking on your spouse's medical record, even as a power of attorney, is a violation unless it is directly related to caregiving decisions. Discussing discharge plans with a client in a multi-bed recovery room with the curtain drawn around the client's bed is not a violation of HIPAA. This scenario is considered an 'incidental disclosure' and is not a breach of HIPAA privacy rules. Avoiding conversations about clients while in line in the cafeteria with a mutual caregiver of that client is actually a good practice as it maintains client confidentiality.

3. A nurse who recently learned she is pregnant has just received client assignments for the day. Which client assignment should the nurse question as being inappropriate?

• A. A client with metastatic cancer who is receiving a continuous infusion of intravenous morphine sulfate
• B. A client with a solid-sealed cervical radiation implant
• C. A client with diarrhea for whom enteric precautions are in effect
• D. A client for whom contact precautions have been implemented and who requires frequent wound irrigations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with a solid-sealed cervical radiation implant. Brachytherapy involves the implantation of a sealed radiation source within the targeted tumor tissue. A client with such an implant emits radiation as long as it is in place. Pregnant nurses should not care for clients with solid-sealed radiation implants due to the potential radiation exposure risk to the fetus. Clients under enteric precautions due to diarrhea, receiving a continuous infusion of intravenous morphine sulfate for cancer pain, or requiring contact precautions and frequent wound irrigations do not pose a risk to pregnant nurses and are appropriate assignments for them. Therefore, the nurse should question the assignment involving the client with the solid-sealed cervical radiation implant as it poses a risk to the fetus.

4. The advanced directive in a client's chart is dated August 12, 1998. The client's daughter produces a Power of Attorney for Health Care, dated 2003, which contains different care directions. What should the nurse do?

• A. Follow the 1998 version because it's part of the legal chart.
• B. Follow the 1998 version because the physician's code order is based on it.
• C. Follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately.
• D. Follow neither until clarified by the unit manager.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The document dated 2003 supersedes the previous version and should be used as a basis for care directions. The nurse should follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately to ensure that the most current care directions are followed. Choices A and B are incorrect because the 1998 version is now outdated, and the nurse should not rely on it for care decisions. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should not delay following the updated document, and seeking clarification from the unit manager can lead to avoidable delays in care.

5. When are standard walkers typically used?

• A. When clients have poor balance, cannot stand up, have weak arms, and good hand strength.
• B. When clients have poor balance, have a broken leg, or have experienced amputation.
• C. When clients have poor balance, have cardiac problems, or cannot use crutches or a cane.
• D. When clients have poor balance, have an autoimmune disease, or have weak arms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Standard walkers are typically used for clients who have poor balance, cardiac problems, or those who cannot use crutches or a cane. The rationale is correct in stating that a walker is suitable for individuals needing to bear partial weight and having strength in their wrists and arms to propel the walker forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the main reasons why standard walkers are used in clinical practice. Using a walker is not solely about having weak arms, good hand strength, a broken leg, experienced amputation, or an autoimmune disease. The primary focus is on addressing balance issues, cardiac problems, or the inability to use crutches or a cane effectively.

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