HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet
1. In assessing a 9-year-old boy admitted to the hospital with possible acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN), what information is most significant to obtain in his history?
- A. Back pain for a few days
- B. A history of hypertension
- C. A sore throat last week
- D. Diuresis during the nights
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A recent sore throat is most significant in this case as it could indicate a preceding streptococcal infection, which is a crucial factor in diagnosing APSGN. Streptococcal infection often precedes APSGN, and recognizing this history is essential for appropriate management and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of APSGN. Back pain and diuresis are symptoms that may not directly correlate with APSGN, while a history of hypertension, although important in general health assessment, is not as specific to the current scenario compared to a recent sore throat.
2. Which intervention is most helpful in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains'?
- A. Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen.
- B. Using a breast pump.
- C. Massaging the abdomen.
- D. Giving oxytocic medications.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen is the most helpful intervention in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains.' This position provides counter-pressure and support to the uterus, helping to alleviate discomfort and promote uterine involution. Choice B, using a breast pump, is not effective in relieving afterpains as it focuses on milk expression. Massaging the abdomen (Choice C) may help with discomfort but does not provide the same level of support as lying prone with a pillow. Giving oxytocic medications (Choice D) is not typically the first-line intervention for afterpains unless there are specific medical indications.
3. The nurse is caring for a 2-day old neonate who has not passed meconium and has a swollen abdomen. The healthcare provider reviews the flat plate X-ray of the abdomen and makes a tentative diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease. Which pathophysiological process is consistent with this neonate's clinical picture?
- A. The congenital absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells to large intestine produces no peristalsis.
- B. Pyloric obstruction causes reflux and projectile hematemesis.
- C. Partial imperforated anal opening limits passage of stools.
- D. Peristalsis moving against the intestinal obstruction causing hyperactivity of the bowel.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease is caused by the absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the large intestine, leading to a lack of peristalsis and obstruction.
4. The nurse is planning care for a 4-year-old girl diagnosed with a developmental disability. What should be the primary focus of treatment for this child?
- A. Teach her social skills.
- B. Assist in preventing further disability.
- C. Ensure her participation in group activities.
- D. Help her achieve her maximum potential.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The primary focus of treatment for a child diagnosed with a developmental disability should be helping them achieve their maximum potential. This approach aims to optimize the child's physical, emotional, cognitive, and social abilities, focusing on enhancing their overall well-being and quality of life. By supporting the child in reaching their highest level of functioning, caregivers can promote independence, self-esteem, and personal growth, which are essential components of holistic care for individuals with developmental disabilities. Teaching social skills (choice A) is important but is just one aspect of the comprehensive care needed. Preventing further disability (choice B) may not always be entirely achievable, but maximizing potential is a more realistic goal. Ensuring participation in group activities (choice C) is valuable for social development, but the primary focus should be on overall potential and well-being.
5. A client who is 32 weeks' gestation comes to the women's health clinic and reports nausea and vomiting. On examination, the nurse notes that the client has an elevated blood pressure. Which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Inspect the client's face for edema.
- B. Ascertain the frequency of headaches.
- C. Evaluate for a history of cluster headaches.
- D. Observe and time the client's contractions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Inspecting the client's face for edema is crucial to assess for preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure during pregnancy. Edema, particularly facial edema, can be a significant indicator of preeclampsia, prompting the need for further evaluation and management to ensure the well-being of both the client and the unborn child.
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