Nursing Elites

1. The nurse instructs a laboring client to use accelerated-blow breathing. The client begins to complain of tingling fingers and dizziness. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer oxygen by face mask.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms.
• C. Have the client breathe into her cupped hands.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure and fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tingling fingers and dizziness are symptoms of hyperventilation, which can occur with accelerated-blow breathing. Instructing the client to breathe into her cupped hands can help rebreathe exhaled carbon dioxide, which can alleviate the symptoms by restoring the proper balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood. This intervention can be effective in managing the client's hyperventilation without the need for additional medical interventions at this point.

2. A woman at 36-weeks' gestation who is Rh negative is admitted to labor and delivery reporting abdominal cramping. She is placed on strict bedrest, and the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern are monitored with an external fetal monitor. The nurse notes a large amount of bright red vaginal bleeding. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Perform a sterile vaginal examination to determine dilatation.
• B. Determine fetal position by performing Leopold maneuvers.
• C. Assess the fetal heart rate and client's contraction pattern.
• D. Confirm Rh and Coombs status for Rho(D) immunoglobulin administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to assess the fetal heart rate and the client's contraction pattern. The presence of a large amount of bright red vaginal bleeding in a woman at 36-weeks' gestation who is Rh negative raises concerns about the well-being of the fetus. Monitoring the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern will provide crucial information about fetal status and help determine the appropriate course of action to ensure the safety and health of both the mother and the baby.

3. At 40-weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor with spontaneous rupture of amniotic membranes at home, in active labor, and feeling the urge to push. What information should the nurse prioritize obtaining?

• A. Color and consistency of fluid.
• B. Estimated amount of fluid.
• C. Any odor noted at the rupture of membranes.
• D. Time of membrane rupture.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the color and consistency of amniotic fluid is crucial as it can indicate the presence of meconium, which suggests potential fetal distress. This information guides the need for further assessments and interventions to ensure the well-being of the mother and fetus. Estimating the amount of fluid is not as critical as determining the color and consistency to identify fetal distress. While noting any odor is important, it is secondary to assessing the fluid itself. Knowing the time of membrane rupture is helpful but not as crucial as evaluating the characteristics of the amniotic fluid.

4. The nurse is caring for a female client, a primigravida with preeclampsia. Findings include +2 proteinuria, BP 172/112 mmHg, facial and hand swelling, complaints of blurry vision and a severe frontal headache. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Clonidine hydrochloride
• B. Carbamazepine
• C. Furosemide
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, including hypertension, proteinuria, facial and hand swelling, visual disturbances, and a severe headache. The medication of choice for preventing seizures in preeclampsia is magnesium sulfate. This drug helps to prevent and control seizures in clients with preeclampsia, making it the most appropriate option for this client. Clonidine hydrochloride (Choice A) is an antihypertensive medication used for managing hypertension but is not the first-line treatment for preeclampsia. Carbamazepine (Choice B) is an anticonvulsant used for seizure disorders like epilepsy and is not indicated for preeclampsia. Furosemide (Choice C) is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention but is not the drug of choice for treating preeclampsia.

5. A client who is receiving oxytocin to augment early labor begins to experience tachysystolic tetanic contractions with variable fetal heart decelerations. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Turn off the oxytocin infusion.
• B. Reposition the fetal monitor transducers.
• C. Decrease the rate of the oxytocin infusion.
• D. Alert the charge nurse about the patient's condition.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences tachysystolic tetanic contractions with variable fetal heart decelerations, indicating uterine hyperstimulation, the priority action is to turn off the oxytocin infusion. This step aims to reduce uterine activity, which can compromise fetal oxygenation and lead to adverse outcomes.

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