Nursing Elites

1. The nurse instructs a laboring client to use accelerated-blow breathing. The client begins to complain of tingling fingers and dizziness. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer oxygen by face mask.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms.
• C. Have the client breathe into her cupped hands.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure and fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tingling fingers and dizziness are symptoms of hyperventilation, which can occur with accelerated-blow breathing. Instructing the client to breathe into her cupped hands can help rebreathe exhaled carbon dioxide, which can alleviate the symptoms by restoring the proper balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood. This intervention can be effective in managing the client's hyperventilation without the need for additional medical interventions at this point.

2. When performing the daily head-to-toe assessment of a 1-day-old newborn, the nurse observes a yellow tint to the skin on the forehead, sternum, and abdomen. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Measure bilirubin levels using transcutaneous bilirubinometry.
• B. Evaluate cord blood Coombs test results.
• C. Review maternal medical records for blood type and Rh factor.
• D. Prepare the newborn for phototherapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presence of a yellow tint on the skin of a newborn suggests jaundice. The initial step in managing jaundice in a newborn is to measure bilirubin levels, typically done using transcutaneous bilirubinometry. This measurement helps determine the severity of jaundice and guides appropriate treatment interventions. Evaluating cord blood Coombs test results or reviewing maternal medical records for blood type and Rh factor are not the immediate actions indicated when jaundice is suspected. Phototherapy may be considered after confirming elevated bilirubin levels and assessing the need for treatment.

3. In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?

• A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12mg deep IM.
• B. Butorphanol 1mg IV push q2h PRN pain.
• C. Ampicillin 1g IV push q8h.
• D. Terbutaline (Brethine) 0.25mg subcutaneously q15 minutes x3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.

4. A 38-week primigravida who works at a desk job and sits at a computer for 8 hours each day tells the nurse that her feet have begun to swell. Which instruction would be most effective in preventing pooling of blood in the lower extremities?

• A. Wear support stockings.
• B. Reduce salt in her diet.
• C. Move about every hour.
• D. Avoid constrictive clothing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, it is common for women to experience swelling due to decreased circulation. Encouraging the patient to move about every hour helps prevent blood pooling in the lower extremities by promoting circulation. This simple activity can help alleviate swelling and discomfort associated with prolonged sitting.

5. The client at 10 weeks' gestation is palpated with the fundus at 3 fingerbreadths above the pubic symphysis. The client reports nausea, vomiting, and scant dark brown vaginal discharge. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Collect a urine sample for urinalysis.
• B. Measure vital signs.
• C. Recommend bed rest.
• D. Obtain human chorionic gonadotropin levels.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a pregnant client with a fundal height greater than expected at 10 weeks and experiencing scant dark brown vaginal discharge, there is a concern for a molar pregnancy. Assessing human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels is crucial in this situation to confirm or rule out this condition.

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