Nursing Elites

1. A 36-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. Her abdomen is rigid and tender to touch. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 90 beats/minute, and the maternal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Alert the neonatal team and prepare for neonatal resuscitation
• B. Notify the healthcare provider from the client’s bedside
• C. Obtain written consent for an emergency cesarean section
• D. Draw a blood sample for stat hemoglobin and hematocrit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider from the client's bedside. The clinical presentation of severe abdominal pain, bright red vaginal bleeding, rigid and tender abdomen, along with fetal bradycardia (FHR 90 bpm) and maternal tachycardia (120 bpm) indicates an urgent need for medical intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for immediate assessment and decision-making to address the critical condition and ensure timely and appropriate management for both the mother and fetus.

2. A male infant with a 2-day history of fever and diarrhea is brought to the clinic by his mother, who tells the nurse that the child refuses to drink anything. The nurse determines that the child has a weak cry with no tears. Which intervention is most important to implement?

• A. Provide a bottle of electrolyte solution.
• B. Infuse normal saline intravenously.
• C. Administer an antipyretic rectally.
• D. Apply an external cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Infusing normal saline intravenously is crucial to treat dehydration caused by fever and diarrhea. In this scenario, the infant's weak cry with no tears indicates severe dehydration, necessitating rapid fluid replacement via intravenous normal saline to restore fluid balance and prevent complications.

3. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct before the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client at 40 weeks' gestation?

• A. Maternal blood pressure.
• B. Level of pain sensation.
• C. Station of presenting part.
• D. Variability of fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing maternal blood pressure is crucial before administering epidural anesthesia because it can cause hypotension, affecting both the mother and the fetus. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion, potentially compromising the fetal oxygen supply. Monitoring and maintaining maternal blood pressure within a safe range are essential to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the fetus during the administration of epidural anesthesia. The other options, such as assessing the level of pain sensation, station of presenting part, and variability of fetal heart rate, are important in obstetric care but are not as critical as monitoring maternal blood pressure to prevent complications related to epidural anesthesia administration.

4. A client addicted to heroin and newly pregnant asks a nurse about ensuring her baby's health while on methadone. What should the nurse advise?

• A. Sign up for group therapy sessions.
• B. Discontinue the methadone right away.
• C. Start prenatal care as soon as possible.
• D. Describe genetic testing protocol.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Initiating prenatal care promptly is essential for monitoring the well-being of both the mother and the fetus, particularly in high-risk pregnancies involving substance use. Early prenatal care allows for timely interventions, education, and support to promote a healthier pregnancy and birth outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because while group therapy may be beneficial, initiating prenatal care is more crucial at this stage. Choice B is incorrect as abrupt discontinuation of methadone can be harmful and should be managed under medical supervision. Choice D is incorrect as genetic testing is not the immediate priority in this scenario.

5. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

• A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
• B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
• C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
• D. Recent decreased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

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