Nursing Elites

1. The newborn nursery is filled to capacity. Which newborn should the nurse assess first?

• A. A three-hour-old just waking up after a period of sleep
• B. A two-day-old crying loudly
• C. A three-day-old two hours after circumcision
• D. A one-hour-old sucking his fist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical time for assessment in a newborn is during the second period of reactivity, which occurs approximately 3-5 hours after delivery. During this phase, newborns are more likely to gag on mucus and aspirate, making it crucial for the nurse to assess their respiratory status first. Choice A indicates a newborn in this critical phase, requiring immediate assessment for potential airway compromise or respiratory distress. Choices B, C, and D do not present an immediate need for assessment related to airway compromise or respiratory distress.

2. A client is being taught about self-administration of Haldol 15 mg po hs. For which side effect/s should the client seek medical attention?

• A. Shortness of breath and fatigue
• B. Restlessness and muscle spasms
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is restlessness and muscle spasms. Haldol, an antipsychotic medication, can cause extrapyramidal side effects such as muscle spasms and restlessness. These side effects can be serious and should prompt the client to seek medical attention. Shortness of breath, fatigue, dry mouth, and diarrhea are not commonly associated with Haldol use, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

3. A client had a Caesarean delivery and is postpartum day 1. She asks for pain medication when the nurse enters the room to do her shift assessment. The client states that her pain level is an 8 on a scale of 1 to 10. What should be the nurse's priority of care?

• A. Give the pain medication and return in an hour for further assessment to allow time for the medication to work.
• B. Complete the postpartum assessment and then give the client pain medication.
• C. Give the pain medication first, do a quick assessment while administering the medication to ensure the pain is not caused by a complication, and return for the full assessment after the client's pain has subsided.
• D. Instruct the patient to do relaxation exercises to relieve her discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pain management is a priority, so the nurse should immediately provide pain medication. However, the nurse should conduct a quick assessment while administering the medication to ensure that a complication, such as hemorrhage, hasn't caused the increased pain. A complete assessment can wait until the pain subsides. Controlling pain will enable the client to move, eliminating other potential complications of delivery and facilitating bonding with the infant. Relaxation techniques can act as an adjunct therapy but by themselves are not usually effective for pain management during the early post-Caesarean period.

4. The nurse is teaching a community health class for cancer prevention and screening. Which individual has the highest risk for colon cancer?

• A. Client with irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Family history of colon polyps
• C. Client with cirrhosis of the liver
• D. History of colon surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A family history of colon polyps and/or colon cancer is a significant risk factor for developing colon cancer. Individuals with a family history are more likely to develop colon cancer due to genetic predisposition. While other factors like irritable bowel syndrome, cirrhosis of the liver, and history of colon surgery may contribute to an increased risk of colon cancer, having a family history of colon polyps is the highest risk factor. Irritable bowel syndrome does not directly increase the risk of colon cancer. Cirrhosis of the liver is associated with liver cancer rather than colon cancer. A history of colon surgery may reduce the risk of colon cancer in some cases by removing precancerous polyps.

5. When planning care for a client taking Heparin, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse address first?

• A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to the presence of a thrombus obstructing blood flow
• B. Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space
• C. Deficient knowledge related to the client's lack of understanding of the disease process
• D. Impaired skin integrity related to the development of bruises and/or hematoma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space.' When a client is taking Heparin, the primary concern is the risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Monitoring for signs of active blood loss is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. While ineffective tissue perfusion, deficient knowledge, and impaired skin integrity are important, they are secondary to the immediate risk of bleeding in clients taking anticoagulants like Heparin.

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