NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The newborn nursery is filled to capacity. Which newborn should the nurse assess first?
- A. A three-hour-old just waking up after a period of sleep
- B. A two-day-old crying loudly
- C. A three-day-old two hours after circumcision
- D. A one-hour-old sucking his fist
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most critical time for assessment in a newborn is during the second period of reactivity, which occurs approximately 3-5 hours after delivery. During this phase, newborns are more likely to gag on mucus and aspirate, making it crucial for the nurse to assess their respiratory status first. Choice A indicates a newborn in this critical phase, requiring immediate assessment for potential airway compromise or respiratory distress. Choices B, C, and D do not present an immediate need for assessment related to airway compromise or respiratory distress.
2. A client had a colostomy done one day ago. Which of the following is an abnormal finding when assessing the stoma?
- A. mild edema
- B. minimal bleeding
- C. rose color
- D. dark red color
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A dark red color is an abnormal finding when assessing the stoma as it indicates inadequate blood supply, possibly due to ischemia. Mild edema, minimal bleeding, and a rose color are expected findings one day post colostomy surgery. Mild edema can be present due to tissue trauma and inflammation, minimal bleeding can occur initially, and a healthy stoma typically appears pink to red, known as a rose color, indicating good blood supply and tissue perfusion. Therefore, the dark red color is the abnormal finding in this scenario.
3. Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
- A. metoclopramide (Reglan)
- B. ondansetron (Zofran)
- C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
- D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist that can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron (Zofran) works by blocking serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) and the gastrointestinal tract. This action helps reduce nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide (Reglan) works as a dopamine antagonist and also has prokinetic effects, making it effective for different conditions. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but it does not act as a serotonin antagonist. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist that is also used to treat nausea and vomiting, but not as a serotonin antagonist like ondansetron.
4. A client has been receiving cyanocobalamin (B12) injections for the past 6 weeks. Which laboratory finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Neutrophil count of 60%
- B. Basophil count of 0.5%
- C. Monocyte count of 2%
- D. Reticulocyte count of 1%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cyanocobalamin is a B12 medication used for pernicious anemia. A reticulocyte count of 1% indicates the desired effect of the medication, as reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that increase in response to B12 therapy, improving anemia. Neutrophils, basophils, and monocytes are white blood cells and are not directly influenced by B12 injections, making them incorrect choices.
5. Which of the following is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms of Type II Diabetes treatment?
- A. Medications
- B. Nutrition
- C. Increased activity
- D. Continuous Insulin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Continuous Insulin is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms for treating Type II Diabetes. While medications, nutrition, and increased activity play crucial roles in managing Type II Diabetes, continuous insulin therapy is more common in Type I Diabetes or in specific cases of Type II Diabetes where other treatments are ineffective. Therefore, the correct answer is Continuous Insulin. Choices A, B, and C are mainstays in the treatment of Type II Diabetes, making them incorrect answers.
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