NCLEX-PN
2024 PN NCLEX Questions
1. The mother of an adolescent calls the clinic nurse and reports that her daughter wants to have her navel pierced. The mother asks the nurse about the dangers associated with body piercing. The nurse provides which information to the mother?
- A. Infection always occurs when body piercing is done
- B. Hepatitis B is a concern with body piercing
- C. Body piercing is generally harmless as long as it is performed under sterile conditions
- D. It is important to discourage body piercing because of the risk of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Generally, body piercing is harmless if the procedure is performed under sterile conditions by a qualified person. Some complications that may occur include bleeding, infection, keloid formation, and the development of allergies to metal. It is essential to clean the area at least twice a day (more often for a tongue piercing) to prevent infection. HIV and hepatitis B infections are not typically associated with body piercing; however, they are a possibility with tattooing. Choice A is incorrect because infection does not always occur when body piercing is done. Choice B is not the best answer as hepatitis B is not commonly associated with body piercing. Choice D is incorrect because the risk of contracting HIV is not a significant concern with body piercing if performed under sterile conditions.
2. While performing a physical assessment on a 6-month-old infant, the nurse observes head lag. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse perform first?
- A. Ask the parents to allow the infant to lie on his stomach to promote muscle development.
- B. Notify the physician because a developmental or neurological evaluation is indicated.
- C. Document the findings as abnormal in the nurse's notes.
- D. Explain to the parents that their child is likely to have developmental delays.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Head lag should be completely resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age indicates the need for further developmental or neurological evaluation. Laying the infant on his stomach promotes muscle development of the neck and shoulder muscles, but because of the age of this child, a referral should be the first action. The findings are abnormal for a 6-month-old infant. Significant head lag can be seen in infants with Down syndrome and hypoxia, as well as neurological and other metabolic disorders. While some of these disorders might include developmental delays, stating this to the parents without a proper evaluation can cause unnecessary distress. The priority is to identify the cause of the head lag through a medical evaluation before discussing potential outcomes with the parents.
3. When administering a nasal spray medication, what should the client do before the medication is administered?
- A. The client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered.
- B. The medication should be sprayed into the nostril.
- C. The medication should be administered as the client inhales.
- D. The client should sit upright when the medication is administered.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered. This step helps clear the nasal passages, ensuring that the medication can reach its intended target. Choice B is incorrect as the nasal spray should be directed into the nostril, not just in front of the nose. Administering the medication as the client inhales (Choice C) is crucial to ensure proper delivery, as it helps the medication reach the desired areas. Choice D is incorrect because the client should be sitting upright, not lying flat, when administering nasal spray medication to allow for better absorption and prevent the medication from flowing out.
4. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health care record notes documentation that the client has Heberden nodes of the distal interphalangeal joints. Which disorder does the healthcare professional determine that the client has?
- A. Scoliosis
- B. Osteoarthritis
- C. Rotator cuff lesions
- D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is characterized by hard, nontender nodules of 2 to 3 mm or larger. These osteophytes (bony overgrowths) of the distal interphalangeal joints are called Heberden nodes. In this disorder, when these nodes occur on the proximal interphalangeal joints, they are called Bouchard nodes. Heberden nodes are not associated with scoliosis, rotator cuff lesions, or carpal tunnel syndrome. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
5. A nurse is preparing to screen a client's vision with the use of a Snellen chart. The nurse uses which technique?
- A. Tests the right eye, then tests the left eye, and finally tests both eyes together
- B. Assesses both eyes together, then assesses the right and left eyes separately
- C. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the largest line on the chart
- D. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the line that can be read 200 feet away by someone with unimpaired vision
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To test visual acuity with the use of a Snellen chart, the nurse places the chart in a well-lit spot at the client's eye level, with the client positioned exactly 20 feet from the chart. The client shields one eye at a time with an opaque card during the test. After testing each eye separately, both eyes are assessed together. The client is asked to read the smallest line of letters visible and encouraged to read the next smallest line as well. Therefore, option A is correct as it describes the correct technique of testing one eye at a time before assessing both eyes together. Option B is incorrect as it assesses both eyes together first, which is not the standard procedure. Options C and D are incorrect as they suggest standing 40 feet from the chart, which contradicts the standard distance of 20 feet for a Snellen chart test.
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