the mother of a one month old calls the clinic to report that the back of her infants head is flat how should the nurse respond
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pediatric Practice Exam

1. The mother of a one-month-old calls the clinic to report that the back of her infant's head is flat. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Positioning the infant on the stomach occasionally when awake and active can help prevent flat spots on the head. This position allows for more natural movement and prevents prolonged pressure on one area of the head, reducing the risk of developing a flat spot. Turning the infant on the left side braced against the crib when sleeping (choice A) is not recommended as it does not address the issue of flat spots. Propping the infant in a sitting position with a cushion when not sleeping (choice B) may increase the risk of falls and is not suitable for a one-month-old. Placing a small pillow under the infant's head while lying on the back (choice C) should be avoided due to the risk of suffocation and sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).

2. A 2-year-old is admitted to the hospital with possible encephalitis, and a lumbar puncture is scheduled. Which information should the nurse provide this child concerning the procedure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Describing the side-lying, knees to chest position that must be assumed during the lumbar puncture procedure is essential as it helps the child understand what to expect, promotes cooperation, and reduces anxiety. This position is necessary for the procedure to be performed safely and effectively. Choice B is incorrect because mentioning loud clicking noises may increase the child's anxiety. Choice C is incorrect because there may be restrictions on activity after the procedure, depending on individual cases. Choice D is also incorrect as it provides information about fluid intake restrictions that are not directly related to the procedure itself.

3. A 10-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse notes that the child has edema and elevated blood pressure. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with acute glomerulonephritis presenting with edema and elevated blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed. Managing blood pressure is essential to prevent further complications associated with the condition, such as worsening kidney function and cardiovascular strain. Monitoring urine output is important but not the priority over managing elevated blood pressure. Elevating the child's legs may help with edema but addressing the elevated blood pressure takes precedence. Fluid intake restriction may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the immediate priority when managing acute glomerulonephritis with edema and hypertension.

4. A 16-year-old adolescent is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of meningitis. The nurse notes that the client has a severe headache and photophobia. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse when a client with meningitis presents with a severe headache and photophobia is to place the client in a dark, quiet room. This intervention helps reduce stimuli that can exacerbate symptoms such as headache and photophobia. Creating a calm environment can provide relief and promote comfort for the client while also supporting their recovery. Administering pain medication may be necessary but ensuring a suitable environment takes precedence. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but is not the immediate priority. Encouraging rest is beneficial, but creating an appropriate environment to alleviate symptoms is the initial essential step.

5. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist albuterol (Proventil). The child’s mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son’s airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly. Albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist that helps open the airways during an asthma attack. By reassuring the mother, the nurse reinforces the correct usage of the medication, which is crucial in managing the child's asthma symptoms effectively. Option A is incorrect because immediate evaluation may not be necessary if the child's symptoms are being managed effectively with albuterol. Option B is incorrect as chronic bronchitis is not typically associated with the overuse of albuterol. Option D is incorrect as albuterol primarily acts as a bronchodilator and does not directly reduce airway inflammation.

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