HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. A 10-year-old girl who has had type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) for the past two years tells the nurse that she would like to use a pump instead of insulin injections to manage her diabetes. Which assessment of the girl is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Understanding of the quality control process used to troubleshoot the pump
- B. Interpretation of fingerstick glucose levels that influence diet selections
- C. Knowledge of her glycosylated hemoglobin A1c levels for the past year
- D. Ability to perform the pump for basal insulin with mealtime boluses
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient transitioning to an insulin pump, understanding the quality control process to troubleshoot the pump is crucial for ensuring proper and safe management of diabetes. This knowledge enables the individual to identify and address any issues that may arise with the pump, helping maintain optimal glycemic control and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D, although important in diabetes management, are not as critical as ensuring the correct understanding of troubleshooting the pump, which directly impacts the girl's ability to effectively use the pump for insulin delivery.
2. During a follow-up clinical visit, a mother tells the nurse that her 5-month-old son, who had surgical correction for tetralogy of Fallot, has rapid breathing, often takes a long time to eat, and requires frequent rest periods. The infant is not crying while being held, and his growth is in the expected range. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Stimulate the infant to cry to produce cyanosis
- B. Auscultate the heart and lungs while the infant is held
- C. Evaluate the infant for failure to thrive
- D. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Auscultating the heart and lungs while the infant is held can provide important diagnostic information in assessing the cardiac and respiratory status of the infant who had surgical correction for tetralogy of Fallot. This intervention can help the nurse identify any abnormal heart or lung sounds, which may indicate complications or issues that need further evaluation or intervention.
3. What is the best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave?
- A. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
- B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
- C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
- D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave is to wave bye-bye to mommy. This action helps the child understand that the separation is temporary and gives him a sense of closure. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes the behavior of two-year-olds. Choice C may invalidate the child's feelings by telling him to 'be a big boy' instead of acknowledging his emotions and providing comfort.
4. What is the recommended analgesia for preparing a school-age child for a lumbar puncture (LP)?
- A. Ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg / 5 ml PO TID.
- B. Codeine 10 mg PO 30 minutes before the procedure.
- C. A transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch immediately before the procedure.
- D. EMLA (eutectic mixtures of local anesthetics) 2.5 hours before the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a lumbar puncture in a school-age child, EMLA cream should be applied 2.5 hours before the procedure. EMLA is commonly used to numb the skin, reducing pain and discomfort for the child during the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because ondansetron is an antiemetic, codeine is an opioid analgesic that may not be suitable for children, and transdermal fentanyl is a strong opioid that is not typically used for local anesthesia in children undergoing lumbar puncture.
5. A school-age child with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department with confusion and rapid breathing. The practical nurse (PN) suspects diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which initial intervention should the PN anticipate?
- A. Administer subcutaneous insulin.
- B. Give oral glucose tablets.
- C. Start intravenous fluids.
- D. Administer oxygen therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intravenous fluids are typically the initial intervention in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to treat dehydration and stabilize the patient's condition. The fluid replacement helps correct electrolyte imbalances and improve perfusion, which are crucial in managing DKA. Insulin therapy follows after fluid resuscitation to address the underlying cause of DKA, which is the lack of insulin leading to increased ketone production. Administering subcutaneous insulin (Choice A) would be premature without first addressing the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Giving oral glucose tablets (Choice B) is contraindicated in DKA as the patient already has high blood glucose levels. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but addressing dehydration with intravenous fluids is the priority intervention in DKA.
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