Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider plans to administer 10 mcg/kg of digoxin elixir as a loading dose to a child who weighs 55 pounds. Digoxin is available as an elixir of 50 mcg/ml. How many milliliters of the digoxin elixir should the healthcare provider administer to this child?

• A. 5 ml
• B. 10 ml
• C. 15 ml
• D. 20 ml

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dose, first, convert the child's weight to kilograms by dividing 55 pounds by 2.2, which equals approximately 25 kg. Then, multiply the weight by the dose (10 mcg/kg) to get the total dose needed, which is 250 mcg. Next, divide the total dose by the concentration of the elixir (50 mcg/ml) to determine the volume needed, which is 5 ml. Therefore, the correct dose is 5 ml based on the child's weight and the concentration of the elixir.

2. What should the nurse do first for a 6-year-old with asthma showing a prolonged expiratory phase, wheezing, and 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)?

• A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
• B. Encourage the child to cough and take deep breaths.
• C. Report the findings to the healthcare provider.
• D. Identify the triggers that precipitated this attack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority action in managing an acute asthma exacerbation in a child. Bronchodilators help to relax the muscles around the airways, opening them up and improving breathing. This intervention aims to address the immediate breathing difficulty and should be done promptly to provide relief for the child. Encouraging coughing and deep breaths (choice B) may worsen the child's condition by further constricting the airways. Reporting findings to the healthcare provider (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority in this acute situation. Identifying triggers (choice D) is crucial for long-term asthma management but is not the first step when managing an acute exacerbation.

3. What is the best response for the nurse when a 2-year-old boy begins to cry as the mother starts to leave?

• A. Let me read this book to you.
• B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation is to help the child understand that the separation is temporary. Waving bye-bye to mommy can be reassuring to the child and make the separation process easier. It acknowledges the child's feelings while providing a positive and comforting interaction. Choice A may distract the child temporarily but doesn't address the underlying issue of separation anxiety. Choice B is inaccurate as children may continue to cry even after the parent leaves. Choice C diminishes the child's emotions and doesn't offer a supportive approach.

4. What intervention should the nurse implement first for a male toddler brought to the emergency center approximately three hours after swallowing tablets from his grandmother's bottle of digoxin (Lanoxin)?

• A. Administer activated charcoal
• B. Prepare gastric lavage
• C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
• D. Give IV digoxin immune fab (Digibind)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering activated charcoal is the priority intervention as it binds with digoxin, preventing further absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This helps reduce the amount of digoxin available for systemic circulation and minimizes its toxic effects. Gastric lavage is no longer recommended due to potential complications and lack of evidence of efficacy. Obtaining an electrocardiogram may help assess the effects of digoxin toxicity, but it is not the initial priority. IV digoxin immune fab (Digibind) is used in severe cases of digoxin toxicity but is not the first-line intervention.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

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