Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a 3-month-old infant are being educated by the healthcare provider about safe sleep practices. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. We will place our baby on their back to sleep
• B. We will use a firm mattress and avoid soft bedding
• C. We will keep our baby in our bed so we can monitor them closely
• D. We will avoid putting toys or pillows in the crib

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Co-sleeping, or keeping the baby in the parents' bed, increases the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). It is crucial for parents to place the baby in a separate crib or bassinet to ensure a safe sleep environment and reduce the risk of SIDS. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate understanding of safe sleep practices by mentioning placing the baby on their back, using a firm mattress and avoiding soft bedding, and not putting toys or pillows in the crib, which are all measures to promote safe sleep and reduce the risk of SIDS.

2. The healthcare provider is developing the plan of care for a hospitalized child with von Willebrand disease. What priority nursing intervention should be included in this child's plan of care?

• A. Reduce exposure to infection.
• B. Eliminate contact with cold objects.
• C. Guard against bleeding injuries.
• D. Reduce contact with other children.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Children with von Willebrand disease have a deficiency in a clotting protein, putting them at risk of bleeding episodes. The priority nursing intervention for a child with von Willebrand disease is to guard against bleeding injuries to prevent excessive bleeding or hemorrhage. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority interventions for von Willebrand disease. While reducing exposure to infection is important for any hospitalized child, it is not the priority for von Willebrand disease. Eliminating contact with cold objects is more relevant for conditions like Raynaud's disease. Reducing contact with other children is not a specific priority related to managing von Willebrand disease.

3. The heart rate for a 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has steadily decreased over the last few hours, now it's 76 bpm, the previous reading 4 hours ago was 110 bpm. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation 94%.
• B. RR of 25 breaths/minute.
• C. Urine output 20 mL/hr.
• D. BP 70/40.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. A decrease in blood pressure may suggest poor cardiac output and compromised perfusion, requiring urgent medical attention. The other findings (oxygen saturation of 94%, RR of 25 breaths/minute, and urine output of 20 mL/hr) are within normal ranges for a 3-year-old and do not indicate immediate deterioration of the heart defect.

4. When obtaining the nursing history of a 7-year-old child admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN), which finding should the nurse expect to obtain?

• A. High blood cholesterol level on routine screening.
• B. Increased thirst and urination.
• C. A recent strep throat infection.
• D. A recent DPT immunization.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a child with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN), a common trigger to expect in the nursing history is a recent strep throat infection. AGN can be triggered by a streptococcal infection, leading to the deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli. This finding is crucial as it helps identify a potential cause for the development of AGN in the child. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as high blood cholesterol levels, increased thirst and urination, and recent DPT immunization are not directly associated with triggering acute glomerulonephritis in children.

5. A 15-year-old client with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic for a routine follow-up. The nurse notes that the client’s hemoglobin A1c is 10%. What should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Increase the frequency of self-monitoring of blood glucose.
• B. Discuss dietary changes to reduce carbohydrate intake.
• C. Review the client’s insulin administration technique.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 10% indicates poor blood glucose control, reflecting an average blood sugar level over the past 2-3 months. To improve control, the plan of care should be comprehensive. Increasing the frequency of self-monitoring of blood glucose helps track changes in blood sugar levels. Discussing dietary changes to reduce carbohydrate intake can aid in better blood sugar management. Reviewing the client’s insulin administration technique ensures proper medication dosing. Therefore, all the options (increasing monitoring, discussing dietary changes, and reviewing insulin administration) are essential components of the plan of care to address the client's poor blood glucose control. The correct answer is D because all these interventions are crucial for managing the client's condition effectively. Choices A, B, and C individually address different aspects of diabetes management and are all necessary in this scenario.

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