Nursing Elites

1. A child with pertussis is receiving azithromycin (Zithromax Injection) IV. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the child's plan of care?

• A. Obtain vital signs to monitor for fluid overload
• B. Change IV site dressing every 3 days and as needed
• C. Monitor for signs of facial swelling or urticaria
• D. Assess for abdominal pain and vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering azithromycin IV, monitoring for signs of an allergic reaction, such as facial swelling or urticaria, is crucial. This helps in early detection of potential adverse reactions and ensures prompt intervention to prevent complications associated with the medication. The other options are not directly related to the administration of azithromycin IV in this scenario. Monitoring for fluid overload would be more relevant for fluid administration, changing IV site dressing is important but not the priority in this case, and assessing for abdominal pain and vomiting may be important but not as critical as monitoring for signs of an allergic reaction.

2. What intervention should the nurse implement first for a male toddler brought to the emergency center approximately three hours after swallowing tablets from his grandmother's bottle of digoxin (Lanoxin)?

• A. Administer activated charcoal
• B. Prepare gastric lavage
• C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
• D. Give IV digoxin immune fab (Digibind)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering activated charcoal is the priority intervention as it binds with digoxin, preventing further absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This helps reduce the amount of digoxin available for systemic circulation and minimizes its toxic effects. Gastric lavage is no longer recommended due to potential complications and lack of evidence of efficacy. Obtaining an electrocardiogram may help assess the effects of digoxin toxicity, but it is not the initial priority. IV digoxin immune fab (Digibind) is used in severe cases of digoxin toxicity but is not the first-line intervention.

3. What is the best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave?

• A. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
• B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave is to wave bye-bye to mommy. This action helps the child understand that the separation is temporary and gives him a sense of closure. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes the behavior of two-year-olds. Choice C may invalidate the child's feelings by telling him to 'be a big boy' instead of acknowledging his emotions and providing comfort.

4. A mother brings her school-aged daughter to the pediatric clinic for evaluation of her anti-epileptic medication regimen. What information should the nurse provide to the mother?

• A. The medication dose will be tapered over a period of 2 weeks when being discontinued
• B. If seizures return, multiple medications will be prescribed for another 2 years
• C. A dose of valproic acid (Depakote) should be available in the event of status epilepticus
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and phenobarbital (Luminal) should be taken for life

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antiepileptic drugs should not be abruptly stopped as it may lead to seizure recurrence. Tapering the medication over a period of 2 weeks helps to prevent withdrawal effects and minimize the risk of seizures. Choice B is incorrect because starting multiple medications for seizure recurrence is not the first-line approach. Choice C is incorrect because valproic acid is not the first-line medication given in the event of status epilepticus. Choice D is incorrect because antiepileptic medications are usually evaluated over time and adjusted based on the individual's response; it is not always necessary to take them for life.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which finding should the healthcare provider report promptly to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dark-colored urine
• B. Mild periorbital edema
• C. Blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypertension is a serious complication of glomerulonephritis, as it can lead to further renal damage. A blood pressure reading of 150/95 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate management to prevent complications. Dark-colored urine can be a common symptom of glomerulonephritis due to blood in the urine but is not as urgent as managing hypertension. Mild periorbital edema can also be seen in glomerulonephritis but is not as concerning as elevated blood pressure. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concern, but addressing hypertension takes priority to prevent further renal damage.

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