Nursing Elites

1. A child with pertussis is receiving azithromycin (Zithromax Injection) IV. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the child's plan of care?

• A. Obtain vital signs to monitor for fluid overload
• B. Change IV site dressing every 3 days and as needed
• C. Monitor for signs of facial swelling or urticaria
• D. Assess for abdominal pain and vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering azithromycin IV, monitoring for signs of an allergic reaction, such as facial swelling or urticaria, is crucial. This helps in early detection of potential adverse reactions and ensures prompt intervention to prevent complications associated with the medication. The other options are not directly related to the administration of azithromycin IV in this scenario. Monitoring for fluid overload would be more relevant for fluid administration, changing IV site dressing is important but not the priority in this case, and assessing for abdominal pain and vomiting may be important but not as critical as monitoring for signs of an allergic reaction.

2. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?

• A. Apply ice to the affected joint
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the affected limb
• D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.

3. A 2-year-old is admitted to the hospital with possible encephalitis, and a lumbar puncture is scheduled. Which information should the nurse provide this child concerning the procedure?

• A. Describe the side-lying, knees to chest position that must be assumed during the procedure.
• B. Tell the child to expect loud clicking noises during the procedure that may be slightly annoying.
• C. Reassure the child that there will be no restrictions on activity after the procedure is completed.
• D. Explain that fluids cannot be taken for 8 hours before the procedure and for 4 hours after the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Describing the side-lying, knees to chest position that must be assumed during the lumbar puncture procedure is essential as it helps the child understand what to expect, promotes cooperation, and reduces anxiety. This position is necessary for the procedure to be performed safely and effectively. Choice B is incorrect because mentioning loud clicking noises may increase the child's anxiety. Choice C is incorrect because there may be restrictions on activity after the procedure, depending on individual cases. Choice D is also incorrect as it provides information about fluid intake restrictions that are not directly related to the procedure itself.

4. A child with Graves' disease who is taking propranolol (Inderal) is seen in the clinic. The nurse should monitor the child for which therapeutic response?

• A. Increased weight gain
• B. Decreased heart rate
• C. Reduced headaches
• D. Diminished fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a child with Graves' disease is prescribed propranolol (Inderal), the nurse should monitor for a decreased heart rate as a therapeutic response. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that acts to slow down the heart rate, which is beneficial in managing the symptoms of Graves' disease, such as tachycardia and other cardiovascular manifestations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because propranolol is not typically associated with increased weight gain, reduced headaches, or diminished fatigue as its primary therapeutic effect in this context.

5. A 13-year-old client with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL. The client reports feeling thirsty and having frequent urination. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed
• B. Encourage the client to drink water
• C. Check the client’s urine for ketones
• D. Reinforce the importance of diet and exercise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with type 1 diabetes presenting with hyperglycemia (blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL) and symptoms of thirst and frequent urination, the priority action for the nurse is to administer insulin as prescribed. Insulin helps lower the blood glucose level and prevents complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. While encouraging hydration is essential, administering insulin is crucial to address the high blood glucose levels. Checking urine for ketones is important in diabetic management but is secondary to administering insulin in this scenario. Reinforcing diet and exercise importance is vital for diabetes management but not the priority in acute hyperglycemia.

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