Nursing Elites

1. The LPN needs to determine the client's respiratory rate. What is the best technique to do this?

• A. Tell the client you need to count their respiratory rate.
• B. Subtly watch the client from across the room when they are doing an activity.
• C. Ask the client to sit still for 30 seconds.
• D. Count respirations while pretending to check the client's pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best technique to determine a client's respiratory rate is to count respirations while pretending to check the client's pulse. You should not inform the client that you are counting their respirations, as this might lead to a change in their breathing pattern. Pretending to check the pulse allows you to be close to the client without revealing that you are assessing their respiratory rate. Asking the client to sit still may not be as effective, as it may cause them to concentrate on their breathing. Watching from across the room may not provide an accurate assessment of respirations, as they might be difficult to observe.

2. A male client is learning about testicular self-examination (TSE) from a nurse. Which statement should the nurse make to the client?

• A. 'A good time to examine the testicles is during or after you take a shower.'
• B. 'If you notice an enlarged testicle or a lump, you need to notify the physician.'
• C. 'The testicle is round and smooth. It feels firm and without lumps.'
• D. 'Perform a testicular exam monthly to detect early signs of testicular cancer.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make to the client is 'If you notice an enlarged testicle or a lump, you need to notify the physician.' During a shower or bath is the best time to examine the testes because warm temperatures make the testes hang lower in the scrotum. The testes should feel round and smooth, without lumps. Self-examination should be performed monthly to detect any abnormalities early. The physician needs to be notified immediately if any abnormal findings are noticed. Choice A is incorrect because the best time for TSE is during or after a warm shower or bath, not just before. Choice C is incorrect as the testicle should feel round, smooth, and without lumps, not egg-shaped and lumpy. Choice D is incorrect as monthly self-examinations are recommended, not every 2 months.

3. In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?

• A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
• B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
• C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
• D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio

Correct answer: B

Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received the DTaP (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus) vaccine along with the polio vaccine. The MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine is not typically given until the child is 12-15 months old. Therefore, option B is correct as it includes vaccines that are usually administered by 12 months of age. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they include vaccines that are typically given after 12 months of age.

4. A client describes her cervical mucus as clear, thin, and elastic. Upon examination, the nurse demonstrates that the cervical mucus can be stretched 8-10 cm. The nurse correctly documents the finding as:

• A. increased ferning capacity.
• B. lack of ferning.
• C. spinnbarkheit.
• D. inhospitable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should document the finding as 'spinnbarkheit.' Spinnbarkheit is the term used to describe the clear, thin, and elastic cervical mucus that can be stretched 8-10 cm, indicating ovulation. It helps couples determine the most fertile period for conception. Ferning capacity or crystallization increases as ovulation approaches, but it requires microscopic examination to be confirmed. Lack of ferning cannot be determined without such examination. 'Inhospitable' cervical mucus refers to patterns that prohibit sperm motility, caused by various factors like hormone levels or infection. These conditions cannot be assessed based solely on the description provided in the question.

5. In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?

• A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
• B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
• C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
• D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio

Correct answer: B

Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received vaccines for diphtheria, pertussis, polio, and tetanus (DTaP and IPV). The correct answer is B as it includes these vaccines that are typically administered in the first year of life. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination usually begins at 12 months of age but is not expected to be completed by this time. Choices A and C are incorrect as they include diseases that are not part of the routine immunization schedule for a 12-month-old child.

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