NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. The LPN needs to determine the client's respiratory rate. What is the best technique to do this?
- A. Tell the client you need to count their respiratory rate.
- B. Subtly watch the client from across the room when they are doing an activity.
- C. Ask the client to sit still for 30 seconds.
- D. Count respirations while pretending to check the client's pulse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best technique to determine a client's respiratory rate is to count respirations while pretending to check the client's pulse. You should not inform the client that you are counting their respirations, as this might lead to a change in their breathing pattern. Pretending to check the pulse allows you to be close to the client without revealing that you are assessing their respiratory rate. Asking the client to sit still may not be as effective, as it may cause them to concentrate on their breathing. Watching from across the room may not provide an accurate assessment of respirations, as they might be difficult to observe.
2. An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?
- A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
- B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
- C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
- D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.
3. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
- B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
- C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
- D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.
4. A client can receive the Mumps, Measles, Rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:
- A. is pregnant.
- B. is immunocompromised.
- C. is allergic to neomycin.
- D. has a cold.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold without a fever since it does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine because the rubella component is a live virus that may cause birth defects and/or disease. Being allergic to neomycin is also a contraindication as per the American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines. Individuals who have experienced anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine. Therefore, option D 'has a cold' is the correct choice, as the presence of a simple cold does not prevent the client from receiving the MMR vaccine.
5. What is the therapeutic range for carbamazepine (Tegretol)?
- A. 7-12 mcg/mL
- B. 4-10 mcg/mL
- C. 10-14 mcg/mL
- D. 1-5 mcg/mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The therapeutic range for carbamazepine (Tegretol) is 4-10 mcg/mL. This range is established based on the optimal balance between effectiveness and safety. Choices A, C, and D are outside the therapeutic range for carbamazepine, which could lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes or increased risk of toxicity. Choice B (4-10 mcg/mL) is the correct range recommended for therapeutic efficacy while minimizing adverse effects.
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