Nursing Elites

1. A nurse helps a young adult conduct a personal lifestyle assessment. The nurse carefully reviews the assessment with the young adult for which reason?

• A. Young adults may ignore physical symptoms and postpone seeking health care
• B. Young adults are unable to afford health insurance
• C. Young adults are at risk for a serious illness
• D. Young adults are exposed to hazardous substances

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The corrected answer is A: Young adults may ignore physical symptoms and postpone seeking health care. Young adults are usually quite active, experience severe illnesses less commonly than members of older age groups, tend to ignore physical symptoms, and often postpone seeking health care. Clients in this developmental stage may benefit from a personal lifestyle assessment to identify habits that increase the risk for various chronic diseases. Choice B is incorrect because the ability to afford health insurance is not the primary reason for conducting a personal lifestyle assessment. Choice C is incorrect because young adults are not inherently at higher risk for serious illness compared to other age groups. Choice D is incorrect because exposure to hazardous substances is not the main focus when conducting a personal lifestyle assessment.

2. During a health assessment interview, the client tells the nurse that she has some vaginal drainage. The client is concerned that it may indicate a sexually transmitted infection (STI). Which statement should the nurse make to the client?

• A. 'When was your last gynecological checkup?'
• B. 'Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?'
• C. Don't worry about the discharge. Some vaginal discharge is normal.'
• D. 'I need some more information about the discharge. What color is it?'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: If the client reports having vaginal drainage and concerns about a possible STI, it is essential for the nurse to gather more information about the discharge. Asking about the color of the discharge helps in determining its characteristics, which can be crucial in identifying potential causes. The color, consistency, odor, and associated symptoms can provide valuable insights into the underlying issue. Statements A and B are relevant questions but not as immediate or specific to addressing the client's concern about the discharge. Statement C dismisses the client's worries and does not encourage further assessment, which is not appropriate in this context.

3. A nurse is preparing to auscultate a fetal heart rate (FHR). The nurse performs the Leopold maneuvers to determine the position of the fetus and then places the fetoscope over which part of the fetus?

• A. Back of the fetus
• B. Carotid artery in the neck of the fetus
• C. Brachial area of one extremity of the fetus
• D. Chest of the fetus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse would use the Leopold maneuvers to identify the position of the fetus and determine the location of the fetal back. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is most easily heard through the fetal back because it usually lies closest to the surface of the maternal abdomen. Auscultation of the FHR over the chest, carotid artery, or brachial area is not possible due to the fetal position within the maternal abdomen. Placing the fetoscope over the carotid artery or brachial area would not yield the fetal heart rate, and the chest area is not typically used for auscultating the FHR.

4. A laboring client is experiencing late decelerations. Which position should she be placed in?

• A. left lateral
• B. lithotomy
• C. semi-Fowler's
• D. right lateral

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the laboring client in the left lateral position is beneficial because it promotes blood flow to the placenta. Late decelerations indicate potential issues with fetal oxygenation, and changing the position to left lateral can help improve placental perfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lithotomy, semi-Fowler's, and right lateral positions do not specifically address the need for improved blood flow to the placenta in cases of late decelerations.

5. What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?

• A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
• B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
• C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
• D. Emphasize client education.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.

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