Nursing Elites

1. The LPN is taking care of a 176-pound client who has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. The primary healthcare provider has written an order for Lantus� (insulin glargine injection) 100 units/mL, using weight-based dosing of 0.2 units/kg per day. The LPN should prepare ____ units for administration.

• A. 12
• B. 35
• C. 16
• D. 9

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms. As 1 kg = 2.2 pounds, 176 pounds � 2.2 = 80 kg. The client should receive 0.2 units for every kilogram, which equals 16 units. Therefore, the total amount to prepare is 16 units x 100 units/mL = 1600 units. Considering the medication concentration of 100 units/mL, 1600 units � 100 units/mL = 16 mL. However, since the question asks for the number of units, the final answer is 16 units x 2 injections = 32 units. Therefore, the LPN should prepare 32 units for administration.

2. During a voice test, how should the nurse provide words for the client to repeat?

• A. Spoken in a soft tone of voice by the nurse about 5 feet in front of the client
• B. Whispered by the nurse from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested
• C. Spoken by the nurse from the client's side in a normal tone of voice about 10 feet from the ear being tested
• D. Whispered at a distance of 20 feet by the nurse while he or she is standing in front of the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a voice test, the nurse should whisper words from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested. This distance helps prevent transmission around the head and ensures accurate testing of one ear at a time. By standing close to the client and whispering, the nurse prevents lip-reading and compensatory actions by the client. The client with normal hearing should be able to repeat each word correctly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong as the voice should be whispered, not spoken in a soft tone. Choice C is inaccurate because a distance of 10 feet is too far for precise testing. Choice D is incorrect as whispering from a distance of 20 feet would not effectively test the client's hearing.

3. When inspecting the client's eyelids for ptosis, the nurse is checking for which abnormality?

• A. Drooping
• B. Pupil dilation
• C. Pupil constriction
• D. Deviation of ocular movements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse inspects a client's eyelids for ptosis, they are checking for drooping. Ptosis is a condition characterized by the drooping of the eyelids and can be associated with various disorders such as myasthenia gravis, dysfunction of cranial nerve III, and Bell's palsy. Pupil dilation and constriction are assessed using a flashlight to check pupillary response. Deviation of ocular movements is evaluated by leading the client's eyes through the six cardinal positions of gaze. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct answer is 'Drooping' as it specifically relates to the abnormality associated with ptosis.

4. When assessing the carotid artery of a client with cardiovascular disease, what action should a nurse perform?

• A. Palpating the carotid artery in the upper third of the neck
• B. Palpating both arteries simultaneously to compare amplitude
• C. Listening to the carotid artery, using the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits
• D. Instructing the client to take slow, deep breaths while the nurse listens to the carotid artery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing the carotid artery of a client with cardiovascular disease, the nurse should listen to the carotid artery using the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits. This is crucial in detecting abnormal sounds that may indicate underlying pathology. Palpating the carotid artery in the upper third of the neck can trigger a vagal response, leading to a decrease in heart rate, which is undesirable. Palpating both arteries simultaneously can disrupt blood flow to the brain. Instructing the client to take slow, deep breaths is unnecessary and not a standard practice during carotid artery assessment.

5. A client can receive the Mumps, Measles, Rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:

• A. is pregnant.
• B. is immunocompromised.
• C. is allergic to neomycin.
• D. has a cold.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold without a fever since it does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine because the rubella component is a live virus that may cause birth defects and/or disease. Being allergic to neomycin is also a contraindication as per the American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines. Individuals who have experienced anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine. Therefore, option D 'has a cold' is the correct choice, as the presence of a simple cold does not prevent the client from receiving the MMR vaccine.

Similar Questions