HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. The letter 'T' in the Acronym 'GATHER' denotes:
- A. Ask the client about themselves - particular needs, obstetric and medical history
- B. Tell the client about modern FP methods available, and discuss each in detail
- C. Help the client choose a method and repeat information regarding the chosen method if necessary
- D. Explain how to use the method - what, where, when, and how
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Tell the client about modern FP methods available, and discuss each in detail.' In the GATHER acronym, 'T' stands for providing information about modern family planning methods to the client and having a detailed discussion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the 'T' component in the GATHER approach. Choice A focuses more on gathering information from the client, choice C is about helping the client choose a method, and choice D is about explaining how to use the method, none of which align with the 'T' in GATHER.
2. What causes the changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty?
- A. Prolactin
- B. Adrenaline
- C. Estrogen
- D. Testosterone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During puberty, boys experience physical changes such as growth of facial and body hair, deepening of the voice, and muscle development. These changes are primarily driven by the hormone testosterone. Testosterone is responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Therefore, the correct answer is testosterone. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because prolactin, adrenaline, and estrogen do not play a significant role in the development of male secondary sexual characteristics during puberty.
3. Amniocentesis deals with patterns of ______ in the amniotic fluid.
- A. Fingers
- B. DNA
- C. Chromosomes
- D. Proteins
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Amniocentesis is a prenatal test that involves examining chromosomes in the amniotic fluid to detect genetic abnormalities. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Chromosomes.' The other choices, such as 'Fingers,' 'DNA,' and 'Proteins,' do not accurately represent what is analyzed during an amniocentesis procedure and are unrelated to the genetic information obtained through this test.
4. What is the definition of incomplete abortion?
- A. Part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, is expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained.
- B. All products of conception are expelled, and there is minimal per vaginal bleeding.
- C. The cervix is closed, and the products of conception remain in the uterus.
- D. The cervix dilates, and the products of conception are expelled.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Incomplete abortion is defined as part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, being expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained. This is the correct definition, making option A the right choice. Option B is incorrect as it describes a complete abortion. Option C is incorrect because in incomplete abortion, the products of conception are not retained in the uterus, and the cervix may be open. Option D is incorrect as it describes a situation more likely to be seen in an inevitable abortion.
5. How does human sperm move?
- A. Flagella
- B. Cilia
- C. Neutrophils
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Human sperm moves using flagella, which are whip-like structures that aid in propulsion. Flagella are tail-like structures found in sperm cells and help them swim towards the egg for fertilization. Cilia are shorter, hair-like structures that are not involved in the movement of sperm. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response and are not related to sperm locomotion.
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