HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. The letter 'T' in the Acronym 'GATHER' denotes:
- A. Ask the client about themselves - particular needs, obstetric and medical history
- B. Tell the client about modern FP methods available, and discuss each in detail
- C. Help the client choose a method and repeat information regarding the chosen method if necessary
- D. Explain how to use the method - what, where, when, and how
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Tell the client about modern FP methods available, and discuss each in detail.' In the GATHER acronym, 'T' stands for providing information about modern family planning methods to the client and having a detailed discussion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the 'T' component in the GATHER approach. Choice A focuses more on gathering information from the client, choice C is about helping the client choose a method, and choice D is about explaining how to use the method, none of which align with the 'T' in GATHER.
2. What prompted Zambia to implement family planning services?
- A. The nation started to experience the effects of rapid population growth on the economy and individual welfare.
- B. Donors provided free family planning pills.
- C. Mothers were delivering twice a year.
- D. There were too many abortions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rapid population growth's impact on the economy and individual welfare prompted Zambia to implement family planning services. This is because a rapidly growing population can strain resources, lead to unemployment, poverty, and inadequate access to healthcare. Choice B is incorrect because the provision of free family planning pills by donors may have been a subsequent intervention rather than the initial reason for implementing family planning services. Choice C is irrelevant as the frequency of deliveries by mothers does not directly relate to the implementation of family planning services. Choice D is also incorrect as high abortion rates may be a consequence of inadequate family planning services rather than the reason for their implementation.
3. When does missed abortion occur?
- A. The fetus dies and is retained in utero with the placenta and membranes.
- B. All products of conception are expelled with minimal bleeding.
- C. The cervix remains closed, and the products of conception remain in the uterus.
- D. The cervix remains closed, but there is heavy bleeding.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Missed abortion occurs when the cervix is closed, and the products of conception remain in the uterus. Choice A describes a missed abortion, not choice C. Choice B describes a complete abortion. Choice D describes a threatened abortion, where the cervix remains closed but there is heavy bleeding.
4. Which of the following is an example of an oviparous animal?
- A. Pigeon
- B. Elephant
- C. Sheep
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pigeon. Oviparous animals are those that lay eggs, and pigeons fall under this category. Choice B, Elephant, is incorrect because elephants are viviparous, giving birth to live young. Choice C, Sheep, is also incorrect as sheep are viviparous animals. Choice D, None of the above, is not the correct answer as a pigeon is indeed an example of an oviparous animal.
5. How many autosomes does a human primary spermatocyte have?
- A. 34
- B. 44
- C. 54
- D. 33
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A human primary spermatocyte has 44 autosomes. Autosomes are chromosomes that are not involved in determining an individual's sex. In humans, there are a total of 46 chromosomes in a somatic cell, with 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is 44 autosomes, making choice B the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the accurate number of autosomes in a human primary spermatocyte.
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