Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following are outcomes of an ectopic pregnancy EXCEPT?

• A. Tubal abortion
• B. Tubal rupture
• C. Intra-tubal bleeding
• D. Secondary abdominal pregnancy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. Common outcomes include tubal abortion (spontaneous termination of ectopic pregnancy within the fallopian tube), tubal rupture (rupture of the fallopian tube leading to internal bleeding), and intra-tubal bleeding. Secondary abdominal pregnancy, on the other hand, is a rare occurrence and not a typical outcome of an ectopic pregnancy. It involves the implantation of a fertilized egg in the peritoneal cavity rather than the uterus.

2. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?

• A. Threatened
• B. Imminent
• C. Missed
• D. Incomplete

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.

3. Approximately how many primordial follicles are present in the cortex of the ovary at birth?

• A. 250,000
• B. 200,000
• C. 150,000
• D. 100,000

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 250,000. At birth, there are approximately 250,000 primordial follicles in the cortex of each ovary. These primordial follicles represent the reserve of oocytes that a female will have throughout her reproductive life. Choice B, 200,000, is incorrect as the number is higher. Choices C and D, 150,000 and 100,000 respectively, are also incorrect as they underestimate the actual number of primordial follicles present at birth.

4. Which of the following tests is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease?

• A. Cervical excitation test
• B. Chadwick sign
• C. Jacquiners sign
• D. Palmers sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical excitation test. The cervical excitation test is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease. This test involves pain or tenderness upon movement of the cervix, indicating inflammation of the pelvic organs. Chadwick sign (choice B) refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased vascularity and is not a test for PID. Jacquiners sign (choice C) and Palmers sign (choice D) are not recognized clinical signs or tests for PID, making them incorrect choices.

5. The Wolffian duct is also known as ____________.

• A. Mesonephric duct
• B. Ejaculatory duct
• C. Major sublingual duct
• D. Cystic duct

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mesonephric duct. The Wolffian duct is indeed also known as the mesonephric duct. This duct plays a vital role in the development of the male reproductive system by carrying sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct. Choice B, Ejaculatory duct, is incorrect as it refers to a different duct responsible for transporting semen from the vas deferens. Choices C and D, Major sublingual duct and Cystic duct, are unrelated to the Wolffian duct and are not correct answers in this context.

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