HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. When does threatened abortion occur?
- A. The patient experiences slight vaginal bleeding through an undilated cervix.
- B. The patient experiences heavy bleeding and cervical dilation.
- C. The patient experiences severe cramping and heavy bleeding.
- D. The patient experiences painless bleeding and an open cervix.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Threatened abortion occurs when the patient experiences slight vaginal bleeding through an undilated cervix. This is characterized by bleeding without cervical dilation, distinguishing it from inevitable abortion (heavy bleeding and cervical dilation), incomplete abortion (severe cramping and heavy bleeding), and missed abortion (painless bleeding and an open cervix).
2. Incomplete abortion is characterized by:
- A. Heavy bleeding.
- B. Open os.
- C. Severe cramping.
- D. Light bleeding.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Incomplete abortion is characterized by an open os, which means that the cervix is dilated, allowing for passage of tissue. This condition typically presents with heavy bleeding as parts of the products of conception are expelled. Severe cramping may also be present due to uterine contractions. Therefore, the correct characteristic of incomplete abortion is an open os (Choice B). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as heavy bleeding and severe cramping are symptoms associated with incomplete abortion, but they do not specifically define it, and light bleeding is not characteristic of incomplete abortion.
3. Inevitable abortion occurs when:
- A. The ovum dies in utero and the decidua capsularis remains intact.
- B. The cervix is open, and the products of conception are about to be expelled.
- C. The products of conception are expelled before the 20th week of gestation.
- D. The fetus dies and is expelled in the first trimester.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Inevitable abortion occurs when the cervix is open, and the products of conception are about to be expelled. This is a critical point in the process of spontaneous abortion, indicating that expulsion of the products of conception is imminent. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a missed abortion where the ovum dies but the decidua capsularis remains intact. Choice C is incorrect as it describes an incomplete abortion where the products of conception are expelled before the completion of 20 weeks of gestation. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a missed abortion where the fetus dies and is expelled in the first trimester.
4. What laboratory values are not typically elevated in a patient with PCOS?
- A. LH
- B. Androgens
- C. Estrogens
- D. Prolactin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prolactin. Prolactin levels are not typically elevated in patients with PCOS. Elevated LH and androgens are commonly seen in PCOS patients. While estrogen levels can vary in PCOS, they are not consistently low or high in all cases.
5. Discuss the anatomical/physiological changes in pregnancy related to the breasts.
- A. Breast tenderness increases, circulatory supply to the breasts increases, leading to breast enlargement, and colostrum secretion occurs.
- B. Breast tenderness decreases, and there is no significant change in breast size.
- C. Breast changes include decreased tenderness and reduced circulatory supply.
- D. Breasts do not undergo significant changes during pregnancy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During pregnancy, the breasts undergo significant anatomical and physiological changes. These changes include increased breast tenderness, an increase in circulatory supply to the breasts, resulting in breast enlargement, and the secretion of colostrum. Choice B is incorrect as breast tenderness actually increases during pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as the circulatory supply to the breasts increases rather than reduces. Choice D is incorrect as breasts do undergo notable changes during pregnancy.
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