Nursing Elites

1. What is the most common cause of abortion in Zambia?

• A. Malaria.
• B. Tuberculosis.
• C. HIV.
• D. Ascariasis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malaria. Malaria is a prevalent cause of abortion in Zambia due to its impact on maternal health. Malaria infection during pregnancy can lead to severe complications, including miscarriage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while Tuberculosis, HIV, and Ascariasis are significant health issues, they are not the commonest cause of abortion in Zambia as Malaria.

2. Expanded access to family planning through non-public delivery systems is facilitated by all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. By using the private sector and social marketing
• B. Community-based programs
• C. Information, Education, and Communication
• D. Key persons in the community

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Expanded access to family planning through non-public delivery systems involves utilizing various strategies to reach more people. Options A, B, and C are all effective methods for expanding access to family planning services. The involvement of key persons in the community is not a typical approach for non-public delivery systems. Key persons in the community may have influence but may not be directly involved in the delivery of family planning services, making option D the correct answer.

3. Which of these methods can be used for the transfer of zygote or early embryo into the fallopian tube?

• A. GIFT
• B. IUT
• C. ZIFT
• D. ICSI

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer). ZIFT involves transferring a zygote or early embryo into the fallopian tube. GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer - A) involves transferring unfertilized eggs and sperm into the fallopian tube for fertilization to occur inside the woman's body, not a zygote or early embryo. IUT (Intrauterine Transfer - B) is not specifically for transferring the zygote or early embryo into the fallopian tube, but rather into the uterus. ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection - D) is a technique where a single sperm is injected directly into an egg, not related to transferring embryos into the fallopian tube.

4. Which of the following tests is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease?

• A. Cervical excitation test
• B. Chadwick sign
• C. Jacquiners sign
• D. Palmers sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical excitation test. The cervical excitation test is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease. This test involves pain or tenderness upon movement of the cervix, indicating inflammation of the pelvic organs. Chadwick sign (choice B) refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased vascularity and is not a test for PID. Jacquiners sign (choice C) and Palmers sign (choice D) are not recognized clinical signs or tests for PID, making them incorrect choices.

5. Discuss the anatomical/physiological changes in pregnancy related to the breasts.

• A. Breast tenderness increases, circulatory supply to the breasts increases, leading to breast enlargement, and colostrum secretion occurs.
• B. Breast tenderness decreases, and there is no significant change in breast size.
• C. Breast changes include decreased tenderness and reduced circulatory supply.
• D. Breasts do not undergo significant changes during pregnancy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, the breasts undergo significant anatomical and physiological changes. These changes include increased breast tenderness, an increase in circulatory supply to the breasts, resulting in breast enlargement, and the secretion of colostrum. Choice B is incorrect as breast tenderness actually increases during pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as the circulatory supply to the breasts increases rather than reduces. Choice D is incorrect as breasts do undergo notable changes during pregnancy.

Similar Questions