how many autosomes does a human primary spermatocyte have

HESI RN

Reproductive System Exam Quizlet

1. How many autosomes does a human primary spermatocyte have?

A. 34
B. 44
C. 54
D. 33

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A human primary spermatocyte has 44 autosomes. Autosomes are chromosomes that are not involved in determining an individual's sex. In humans, there are a total of 46 chromosomes in a somatic cell, with 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is 44 autosomes, making choice B the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the accurate number of autosomes in a human primary spermatocyte.

2. What type of epithelium lines the urinary bladder?

A. Transitional epithelium.
B. Stratified epithelium.
C. Glandular tissue.
D. Endometrium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transitional epithelium. The urinary bladder is lined with transitional epithelium, a specialized type of epithelial tissue that can stretch and recoil to accommodate changes in volume as the bladder fills and empties. Stratified epithelium (choice B) is not the main lining of the urinary bladder and is found in other areas like the skin. Glandular tissue (choice C) is responsible for producing secretions and is not typically found lining the urinary bladder. Endometrium (choice D) is the inner lining of the uterus and is not present in the urinary bladder.

3. Which of the following is NOT a strategy for family planning?

A. Integrating family planning services with other Reproductive Health programs
B. Expanding access to family planning through non-public delivery systems
C. Targeting family planning services to priority groups
D. Expanding programs of immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Expanded programs of immunization are not considered a strategy for family planning. Immunization programs focus on preventing diseases through vaccines and are distinct from family planning strategies, which aim to help individuals and couples plan their desired family size and spacing of children. Choices A, B, and C are all valid strategies for family planning. Integrating family planning services with other reproductive health programs, expanding access to family planning through non-public delivery systems, and targeting family planning services to priority groups are common approaches to improve the availability and effectiveness of family planning services.

4. At 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:

A. Nipples become prominent and mobile.
B. Colostrum can be expressed.
C. Breasts become tender.
D. Montgomery's tubercles are prominent.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, Montgomery's tubercles become prominent. These are sebaceous glands on the areola, not the nipples. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the changes in nipples, not Montgomery's tubercles. Choice B is incorrect as colostrum production usually starts around the 16th week. Choice C is incorrect as breast tenderness is more common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes.

5. What is Diazepam used for?

A. Management of post-partum hemorrhage.
B. Management of pre-eclampsia.
C. Induction of labor.
D. Relieving anxiety.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diazepam is primarily used for relieving anxiety and muscle spasms. It is a benzodiazepine medication that works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter in the brain to produce a calming effect. While Diazepam is not used for managing post-partum hemorrhage, pre-eclampsia, or inducing labor, it is essential in treating anxiety disorders, muscle spasms, and certain types of seizures. Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it aligns with the primary therapeutic use of Diazepam.