how many autosomes does a human primary spermatocyte have

HESI RN

Reproductive System Exam Quizlet

1. How many autosomes does a human primary spermatocyte have?

A. 34
B. 44
C. 54
D. 33

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A human primary spermatocyte has 44 autosomes. Autosomes are chromosomes that are not involved in determining an individual's sex. In humans, there are a total of 46 chromosomes in a somatic cell, with 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is 44 autosomes, making choice B the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the accurate number of autosomes in a human primary spermatocyte.

2. The patient about to undergo gynecological surgery is put on nil by mouth for ____ before surgery to prevent aspiration.

A. 2-4 hours
B. 3-5 hours
C. 4-6 hours
D. 5-7 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients undergoing gynecological surgery are typically advised to be nil by mouth for 4-6 hours before the procedure to reduce the risk of aspiration. This duration allows the stomach to empty its contents, decreasing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of stomach contents during surgery. Choices A, B, and D have shorter durations and may not provide sufficient time for adequate gastric emptying, increasing the risk of aspiration.

3. What is the definition of incomplete abortion?

A. Part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, is expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained.
B. All products of conception are expelled, and there is minimal per vaginal bleeding.
C. The cervix is closed, and the products of conception remain in the uterus.
D. The cervix dilates, and the products of conception are expelled.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Incomplete abortion is defined as part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, being expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained. This is the correct definition, making option A the right choice. Option B is incorrect as it describes a complete abortion. Option C is incorrect because in incomplete abortion, the products of conception are not retained in the uterus, and the cervix may be open. Option D is incorrect as it describes a situation more likely to be seen in an inevitable abortion.

4. Discuss the anatomical/physiological changes in pregnancy related to the breasts.

A. Breast tenderness increases, circulatory supply to the breasts increases, leading to breast enlargement, and colostrum secretion occurs.
B. Breast tenderness decreases, and there is no significant change in breast size.
C. Breast changes include decreased tenderness and reduced circulatory supply.
D. Breasts do not undergo significant changes during pregnancy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, the breasts undergo significant anatomical and physiological changes. These changes include increased breast tenderness, an increase in circulatory supply to the breasts, resulting in breast enlargement, and the secretion of colostrum. Choice B is incorrect as breast tenderness actually increases during pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as the circulatory supply to the breasts increases rather than reduces. Choice D is incorrect as breasts do undergo notable changes during pregnancy.

5. Treatment for condylomata acuminata includes the following EXCEPT:

A. Vulvectomy
B. Podophyllin application
C. Laser therapy
D. Electrocautery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vulvectomy is not a standard treatment for condylomata acuminata, which are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Surgical removal of the vulva (vulvectomy) is an extreme measure and not typically indicated for treating this condition. Choices B, C, and D are valid treatments for condylomata acuminata. Podophyllin application, laser therapy, and electrocautery are commonly used to remove or destroy genital warts caused by HPV. These treatments aim to eliminate the visible warts and clear the infection.