NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is asking for help with the repetitive behaviors. The nurse knows that these are a method of dealing with:
- A. Fearful situations
- B. Depression
- C. Delusions
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Anxiety. Repetitive behaviors in OCD serve as a way for individuals to cope with their anxiety. These behaviors are often performed to reduce the distress caused by obsessive thoughts. Choice A, fearful situations, is incorrect because the behaviors are more related to managing anxiety rather than fear itself. Choice B, depression, is incorrect as OCD behaviors are not typically a method of coping with depression. Choice C, delusions, is also incorrect as these behaviors are not aimed at managing delusional thoughts but rather anxiety in OCD.
2. After a client has a tubal ligation in the outpatient surgical clinic, what is the priority for the nurse to determine?
- A. The client's prior experiences with outpatient surgery
- B. The client's medical plan and the extent of coverage for outpatient surgery
- C. The client's plan for transportation and care at home
- D. The client's plan to spend the night at the surgical center
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority for the nurse is to ensure the client has a safe way to get home and adequate care after discharge. It is crucial to determine the client's transportation arrangements and availability of care at home to ensure a smooth transition postoperatively. Options A and B, though important, are not immediate priorities compared to the client's safety and well-being after the procedure. Option D is incorrect as spending the night at the surgical center is not typically part of the plan for outpatient surgery.
3. What happens if folic acid is administered to treat anemia without determining its underlying cause?
- A. Erythropoiesis is inhibited
- B. Excessive levels of folic acid might accumulate, causing toxicity
- C. The symptoms of pernicious anemia might be masked, delaying treatment
- D. Intrinsic factor is destroyed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When folic acid is given without determining the underlying cause of anemia, the symptoms of pernicious anemia may be masked, potentially delaying the correct treatment. Folic acid alone does not protect against the central nervous system changes seen in pernicious anemia, which are related to Vitamin B12 deficiency. Folic acid and Vitamin B12 are both crucial for cell growth and division. Administering folic acid without knowing the specific type of anemia could lead to a delay in addressing the root cause. Option A is incorrect because folic acid is essential for erythropoiesis, the production of red blood cells. Option B is incorrect as excessive folic acid can cause toxicity, but it is not the primary concern in this context. Option D is incorrect because folic acid treatment for anemia does not directly impact intrinsic factor, which is related to Vitamin B12 absorption.
4. Which reported symptom would indicate a client with Addison's disease has received too much fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement?
- A. Oily skin and hair
- B. Weight gain of 6 pounds in one week
- C. Loss of muscle mass in arms and legs
- D. Increased blood glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement in Addison's disease involves mimicking aldosterone to retain sodium and water. This retention can lead to weight gain due to increased fluid retention. Rapid weight gain, such as 6 pounds in one week, is a concerning sign of excessive fluid retention, indicating a potential overdose of fludrocortisone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because oily skin and hair, loss of muscle mass, and increased blood glucose levels are not specific symptoms of excessive fludrocortisone replacement in Addison's disease.
5. The client in the Emergency Department, who has suffered an ankle sprain, should be taught to:
- A. use cold applications to the sprain during the first 24-48 hours.
- B. expect disability to decrease within the first 24 hours of injury
- C. expect pain to decrease within 3 hours after injury.
- D. begin progressive passive and active range of motion exercises immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client suffers an ankle sprain, the nurse should teach them to use cold applications to the sprain during the first 24-48 hours. Cold applications are believed to produce vasoconstriction and reduce the development of edema. Expecting disability to decrease within the first 24 hours of injury (choice B) is incorrect as disability and pain are anticipated to increase during the first 2-3 hours after injury. Expecting pain to decrease within 3 hours after injury (choice C) is also incorrect as pain and swelling usually increase initially. Beginning progressive passive and active range of motion exercises immediately (choice D) is not recommended; these exercises are usually started 2-5 days after the injury, according to the physician's recommendation. Treatment for a sprain involves support, rest, and alternating cold and heat applications. X-ray pictures are often necessary to rule out any fractures.
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