the client is admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease blood gases reveal ph 736 co2 45 o2 84 hco3 28 the nurse would assess the client to
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Practice Questions 2024

1. The client is admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Blood gases reveal pH 7.36, CO2 45, O2 84, HCO3 28. The nurse would assess the client to be in:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is experiencing compensated respiratory acidosis. The pH is within the normal range but is lower than 7.40, indicating acidity. The elevated CO2 level and low O2 level suggest respiratory involvement. The slightly elevated HCO3 level indicates a compensatory mechanism. In respiratory acidosis, the pH will be inversely related to the CO2 and bicarb levels, with elevated CO2 and HCO3 levels contributing to acidosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the presented blood gas values and the compensatory response observed in this case.

2. The client is scheduled for a pericentesis. Which instruction should be given to the client before the exam?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client scheduled for a pericentesis should be instructed to empty the bladder to prevent the risk of bladder puncture when the needle is inserted. A pericentesis involves removing fluid from the peritoneal cavity. The client is typically positioned sitting up or leaning over a table, making answer A incorrect. During a pericentesis, the client is usually awake, so answer C is incorrect. Medications are not commonly injected into the peritoneal cavity during this procedure, making answer D incorrect. However, it's important to note that the administration of medications during the procedure could vary based on specific circumstances.

3. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

4. A 10-month-old child is brought to the Emergency Department because he is difficult to awaken. The nurse notes bruises on both upper arms. These findings are most consistent with:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the child being shaken.' In cases of suspected child abuse, bruises on both upper arms can be indicative of a child being shaken, as children who are shaken are frequently grasped by both upper arms. The presentation of a 10-month-old child being difficult to awaken, along with bruises on the upper arms, raises concern for inflicted injury. Symptoms of brain injury associated with shaking include a decreased level of consciousness. Choices A, C, and D are less likely in this scenario as they do not align with the concerning signs of suspected abuse indicated by the bruises and the child's altered level of consciousness.

5. In which age group does the highest incidence of child abuse occur?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Birth-3 years old.' Children between birth and 3 years of age have the highest rates of victimization (at 16 per 1,000 children). This age group is most vulnerable due to their dependency and inability to report or protect themselves effectively. Child abuse can occur at any age, but statistics show that infants and toddlers are at the highest risk due to their developmental stage and reliance on caregivers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while child abuse can happen at any age, the prevalence is highest among children in the 0-3 age group.

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