NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care
1. The laws enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:
- A. Good Samaritan laws.
- B. HIPAA.
- C. Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA).
- D. OBRA.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Good Samaritan laws. These laws protect individuals who provide voluntary emergency care from being held liable for any unintended injury or harm that may occur during the care. Good Samaritan laws encourage individuals to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. HIPAA, on the other hand, focuses on safeguarding patient information and privacy, ensuring confidentiality. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) pertains to a patient's rights to make decisions about their medical treatment and advance directives. OBRA, enacted in the late 1980s, aims to improve the quality of care in nursing homes and enhance residents' quality of life, focusing on nursing home reform and standards, which is not directly related to immunity for emergency care providers.
2. To what does legal protection of confidentiality extend?
- A. Written documentation only.
- B. Electronic dissemination of information not identifiable to a specific client.
- C. Only within the court system.
- D. Both written and verbal information.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Legal protection of confidentiality extends to both written and verbal information that is identifiable as individual private health information. Confidentiality in healthcare settings is vital to protect patients' privacy and trust. Choice A is incorrect because legal protection covers verbal information as well, not just written documentation. Choice B is incorrect as it mentions information not identifiable to a specific client, which wouldn't fall under legal protection of confidentiality. Choice C is incorrect as confidentiality extends beyond just the court system, impacting various healthcare settings and interactions. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
3. Which type of diet should the nurse provide to help a client who has major burns maintain a positive nitrogen balance?
- A. high protein
- B. high carbohydrate
- C. low carbohydrate
- D. low protein
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with major burns are in a hypermetabolic state, leading to increased protein catabolism. Therefore, a high-protein diet is essential to help them maintain a positive nitrogen balance and support wound healing. High carbohydrate diets do not directly contribute to achieving a positive nitrogen balance, making choice B incorrect. Similarly, low carbohydrate diets are not recommended for clients with major burns as carbohydrates provide essential energy needed for healing. Low protein diets are contraindicated for clients with major burns as they require higher protein intake to support tissue repair and prevent further breakdown.
4. Under what circumstances can an individual receive medical care without giving informed consent?
- A. when the durable power of attorney for health care is not available
- B. in an emergency, life-or-death situation
- C. when the physician is not available for discussion with the client
- D. when they (clients) are not able to speak for themselves
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An individual may receive medical care without giving informed consent in an emergency, life-or-death situation. This exception allows healthcare providers to provide immediate treatment to save a person's life or prevent serious harm when time is of the essence. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in all other situations, informed consent is required. The durable power of attorney for health care should be involved if available, the physician should have a discussion with the client in non-life-threatening situations, and in cases where clients are unable to speak for themselves, their designated representative or responsible party should be involved in the consent process.
5. When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of morphine sulfate, what should the nurse check first?
- A. Temperature
- B. Respiratory status
- C. Pulse
- D. Urine output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving morphine sulfate via continuous intravenous infusion, the nurse's priority should be checking the client's respiratory status first. Morphine sulfate can lead to respiratory depression, emphasizing the need for close monitoring of breathing. While temperature, pulse, and urine output are all essential components of the assessment, ensuring adequate respiratory function takes precedence due to the potential risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine sulfate. Promptly assessing respiratory status enables early identification of any signs of respiratory distress or depression, allowing for immediate intervention if needed.
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