Nursing Elites

1. The laws enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:

• A. Good Samaritan laws.
• B. HIPAA.
• C. Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA).
• D. OBRA.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Good Samaritan laws. These laws protect individuals who provide voluntary emergency care from being held liable for any unintended injury or harm that may occur during the care. Good Samaritan laws encourage individuals to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. HIPAA, on the other hand, focuses on safeguarding patient information and privacy, ensuring confidentiality. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) pertains to a patient's rights to make decisions about their medical treatment and advance directives. OBRA, enacted in the late 1980s, aims to improve the quality of care in nursing homes and enhance residents' quality of life, focusing on nursing home reform and standards, which is not directly related to immunity for emergency care providers.

2. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m.?

• A. delta sleep
• B. slow brain waves
• C. pneumonia
• D. circadian rhythm

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.

3. A health care provider writes a medication prescription in a client's record. While transcribing the prescription, the nurse notes that the prescribed dose is three times higher than the recommended dose. The nurse calls the health care provider, who states that this is the dose that the client takes at home and that it is acceptable for this client's condition. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Verifying the prescribed dose with the client before administering the medication
• B. Contacting the nursing supervisor
• C. Asking the nurse assigned to care for the client to administer the medication
• D. Continuing to transcribe the prescription

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse has identified a significant discrepancy between the prescribed dose and the recommended dose. While the health care provider has justified the higher dose based on the client's home regimen, the nurse's primary responsibility is to ensure patient safety. If a nurse has concerns about a prescription being incorrect or potentially harmful, they should seek further clarification from the health care provider. Since the nurse still believes the dose is inappropriate after discussing with the health care provider, the next appropriate action is to contact the nursing supervisor. Continuing to transcribe the prescription without addressing the concern could jeopardize the client's safety. Asking another nurse to administer the medication without proper resolution of the dosage concern would also pose a risk to the client. While verifying the prescribed dose with the client is important, in this situation, the nurse should first escalate the issue to the nursing supervisor to ensure appropriate actions are taken.

4. Which of the following client statements indicates adequate understanding of preparation for electroencephalography?

• A. "I don't need to eat or drink after midnight."?
• B. "I need to wash my hair before the test."?
• C. "I need to remove metal jewelry."?
• D. "I can't take aspirin before the test."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement is, 'I need to wash my hair before the test.' Washing the hair is necessary to remove hair products that could interfere with electrode attachment to the scalp. Restricting food or drink is not required, except for avoiding caffeinated beverages. Removing metal jewelry is unnecessary for an electroencephalography procedure. Aspirin does not need to be avoided before the test; medications like anticonvulsants, tranquilizers, barbiturates, and sedatives are the ones that might need to be held.

5. A client is on a clear liquid diet. She drinks half of a 12-ounce juice, 4 ounces of soup, and has a 6-ounce JELLO�. How many milliliters of fluid did the patient ingest?

• A. 440 ml
• B. 480 ml
• C. 220 ml
• D. 660 ml

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the total amount of fluid ingested, convert the ounces to milliliters. Given that 1 ounce is equal to 30 ml, the breakdown is as follows: Juice (6 ounces): 6 x 30 = 180 ml. Soup (4 ounces): 4 x 30 = 120 ml. JELLO� (6 ounces): 6 x 30 = 180 ml. Adding these together: 180 ml (juice) + 120 ml (soup) + 180 ml (JELLO�) = 480 ml. Therefore, the patient ingested a total of 480 ml of fluid. It's important to note that gelatin, ice cream, and similar items that are liquid at room temperature should be considered as fluids. Choice A, 440 ml, is incorrect as it does not account for the correct calculation. Choice C, 220 ml, is incorrect as it is significantly lower than the correct total. Choice D, 660 ml, is incorrect as it overestimates the total fluid intake.

Similar Questions