Nursing Elites

1. What does reproductive health refer to?

• A. Healthy baby
• B. Frequent coitus
• C. Healthy reproductive organs and functions
• D. Longer lifetime

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reproductive health refers to the overall well-being of the reproductive system, including both the organs and their functions. It encompasses the ability to have a satisfying and safe sex life, the capability to reproduce, and the absence of reproductive problems. Choice A is incorrect because reproductive health is not solely about having a healthy baby but also includes the health of the individual. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses only on sexual activity frequency rather than the holistic well-being of the reproductive system. Choice D is incorrect because a longer lifetime does not specifically relate to reproductive health.

2. Abortion is defined as:

• A. Bleeding per vaginum in early pregnancy
• B. Willingness to terminate pregnancy
• C. Expulsion of products of conception after the 28th week of gestation
• D. Expulsion of products of conception before the 28th week of gestation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abortion is defined as the expulsion of products of conception before the 28th week of gestation. Choice A is incorrect as it describes bleeding in early pregnancy, not the definition of abortion. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to the willingness to terminate a pregnancy rather than the actual act of expulsion. Choice C is incorrect as it defines abortion as the expulsion of products of conception after the 28th week of gestation, which is considered a stillbirth.

3. What is the purpose of hysteroscopy?

• A. View the uterine cavity
• B. Perform a D&C procedure
• C. Remove the fetus
• D. Visualize the fallopian tubes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hysteroscopy is a procedure where a very narrow endoscope is inserted through the cervix to view the uterine cavity. This allows healthcare providers to diagnose and treat various uterine conditions such as polyps, fibroids, and adhesions. Choice B, performing a D&C procedure, involves dilating the cervix and scraping the uterine lining, which is a different procedure. Choice C, removing the fetus, is not the purpose of hysteroscopy and is a procedure done in specific circumstances such as pregnancy termination or miscarriage management. Choice D, visualizing the fallopian tubes, is typically done through a procedure called a hysterosalpingogram, which is different from hysteroscopy.

4. What is a cord inserted to the very edge of the placenta known as?

• A. Battledore insertion
• B. Placenta velamentosa
• C. Placenta accreta
• D. Vasa Praevia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cord inserted to the very edge of the placenta is known as battledore insertion. This occurs when the cord is attached to the fetal membranes at the placental margin rather than directly to the placental tissue. Placenta velamentosa refers to the condition where the umbilical cord inserts into the fetal membranes before it reaches the placenta. Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall. Vasa Praevia is a condition where fetal blood vessels run across or near the internal cervical opening.

5. Treatment for condylomata acuminata includes the following EXCEPT:

• A. Vulvectomy
• B. Podophyllin application
• C. Laser therapy
• D. Electrocautery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vulvectomy is not a standard treatment for condylomata acuminata, which are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Surgical removal of the vulva (vulvectomy) is an extreme measure and not typically indicated for treating this condition. Choices B, C, and D are valid treatments for condylomata acuminata. Podophyllin application, laser therapy, and electrocautery are commonly used to remove or destroy genital warts caused by HPV. These treatments aim to eliminate the visible warts and clear the infection.

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