Nursing Elites

1. Polyethylene glycol–electrolyte solution (GoLYTELY) is prescribed for a hospitalized client scheduled for a colonoscopy. The client begins to experience diarrhea after drinking the solution. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Calling the physician
• B. Administering a cleansing enema
• C. Documenting the diarrhea in the medical record
• D. Giving intravenous replacement fluids in large amounts

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse in this situation is to document the diarrhea in the medical record. Polyethylene glycol–electrolyte solution (GoLYTELY) is a bowel evacuant used to cleanse the bowel before a colonoscopy. It is expected to cause mild diarrhea, which is a normal response to the medication. The diarrhea helps clear the bowel in preparation for the procedure. Calling the physician is not necessary unless there are complications. Administering a cleansing enema or giving intravenous replacement fluids in large amounts are not appropriate actions as they are not indicated for managing the expected diarrhea caused by GoLYTELY.

2. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and is becoming increasingly dyspneic. Which additional assessment finding by the nurse supports the client's admitting diagnosis?

• A. An enlarged, distended abdomen.
• B. Crackles in the bases of both lungs.
• C. Jugular vein distension.
• D. Peripheral edema.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Crackles in the bases of the lungs are indicative of fluid accumulation, which is common in left-sided heart failure. In left-sided heart failure, the heart is unable to effectively pump blood from the lungs to the rest of the body, leading to a backup of fluid in the lungs. This results in crackles heard on auscultation. Choices A, C, and D are not specific to left-sided heart failure. An enlarged, distended abdomen may indicate ascites or liver congestion. Jugular vein distension is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, and peripheral edema is a sign of fluid accumulation in the tissues, which can occur in both types of heart failure but is not as specific to left-sided heart failure as crackles in the lungs.

3. After a urography, a client is instructed by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid direct contact with your urine for 24 hours until the dye clears.
• B. You may experience dribbling of urine for several weeks post-procedure.
• C. Drink at least 3 liters of fluids today to assist in dye elimination.
• D. Your skin may turn slightly yellow from the dye used in this procedure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is important for the client to increase fluid intake to aid in the rapid elimination of the potentially nephrotoxic dye used in urography. This instruction will help prevent any adverse effects related to the dye. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the dye used in urography is not radioactive, so there is no need to avoid direct contact with urine, urine dribbling is not a common post-procedure occurrence, and the dye should not cause the client's skin to change color.

4. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure of 90/70, pulse of 124 beats/minute, and respirations of 28 breaths/minute. When assessing the client, findings include mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Transfer the client to the ICU.
• B. Initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids.
• C. Assess the client's core temperature.
• D. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating an infusion of IV fluids is the priority action to stabilize blood pressure in a client with signs of sepsis. Intravenous fluids help maintain perfusion to vital organs and prevent further deterioration. Option A is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's condition can be initiated in the current setting. Option C, assessing the client's core temperature, is important but not the most critical action at this time. Option D, obtaining a wound specimen for culture, is important for identifying the causative organism but is not the first priority in managing a client with signs of sepsis.

5. Which of the following is a key symptom of appendicitis?

• A. Right lower quadrant pain.
• B. Left lower quadrant pain.
• C. Generalized abdominal pain.
• D. Rebound tenderness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Choice A: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic and key symptom of appendicitis. Pain in the right lower quadrant is typically the initial symptom and is a result of inflammation and irritation of the appendix. This pain can start around the umbilicus and then migrate to the right lower quadrant. It is important to note that appendicitis rarely presents with pain in the left lower quadrant or generalized abdominal pain. Rebound tenderness, indicated in Choice D, is a sign of peritoneal irritation and is associated with appendicitis, but it is not as characteristic as the right lower quadrant pain in the initial presentation of appendicitis.

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