HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. In a patient with type 1 diabetes, which of the following is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Dry skin
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Tachycardia is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in a patient with type 1 diabetes. In DKA, the body responds to hyperglycemia and dehydration by increasing heart rate. Polyuria (increased urination) is a symptom of diabetes but not specific to DKA. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and dry skin are not typical signs of DKA; instead, tachycardia and other signs of volume depletion are more common.
2. The patient weighs 75 kg and is receiving IV fluids at a rate of 50 mL/hour, having consumed 100 mL orally in the past 24 hours. What action will the nurse take?
- A. Contact the provider to ask about increasing the IV rate to 90 mL/hour.
- B. Discuss with the provider the need to increase the IV rate to 150 mL/hour.
- C. Encourage the patient to drink more water so the IV can be discontinued.
- D. Instruct the patient to drink 250 mL of water every 8 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The recommended daily fluid intake for adults is 30 to 40 mL/kg/day. For a patient weighing 75 kg, the minimum intake should be 2250 mL/day. The patient is currently receiving 1200 mL IV and 100 mL orally, totaling 1300 mL. Increasing the IV rate to 90 mL/hour would provide a total of 2160 mL, which could meet the patient's needs if oral intake continues. Option B suggests increasing the IV rate to 150 mL/hour, resulting in an excessive fluid intake of 3600 mL/day, surpassing the recommended amount. Option C, encouraging increased fluid intake, is not recommended as the patient is already struggling with fluid intake. Option D, instructing the patient to drink 250 mL of water every 8 hours, would still fall short of the required fluid intake of 2250 mL/day.
3. A client who is postmenopausal and has had two episodes of bacterial urethritis in the last 6 months asks, “I never have urinary tract infections. Why is this happening now?” How should the nurse respond?
- A. Your immune system becomes less effective as you age.
- B. Low estrogen levels can make the tissue more susceptible to infection.
- C. You should be more careful with your personal hygiene in this area.
- D. It is likely that you have an untreated sexually transmitted disease.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Low estrogen levels in postmenopausal women decrease moisture and secretions in the perineal area, causing tissue changes that predispose them to infection, including urethritis. This is a common reason for urethritis in postmenopausal women. While immune function does decrease with aging and sexually transmitted diseases can cause urethritis, the most likely reason in this case is the low estrogen levels. Personal hygiene practices are usually not a significant factor in the development of urethritis.
4. A client with kidney stones from secondary hyperoxaluria requires medication. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
- A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
- B. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine)
- C. Tolterodine (Detrol LA)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allopurinol (Zyloprim). Allopurinol is used to treat kidney stones caused by secondary hyperoxaluria. This medication helps prevent the formation of certain types of kidney stones. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is given to clients with urinary tract infections, not for kidney stones. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine) is an anticholinergic medication used for treating certain gastrointestinal conditions, not kidney stones. Tolterodine (Detrol LA) is also an anticholinergic with smooth muscle relaxant properties, primarily used to treat overactive bladder conditions, not kidney stones.
5. A female client is brought to the clinic by her daughter for a flu shot. She has lost significant weight since the last visit. She has poor personal hygiene and inadequate clothing for the weather. The client states that she lives alone and denies problems or concerns. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Notify social services immediately if suspected elderly abuse is present.
- B. Discuss the need for mental health counseling with the daughter.
- C. Explain to the client the importance of taking better care of herself.
- D. Collect further data to determine whether self-neglect is occurring.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client presents with significant weight loss, poor hygiene, and inadequate clothing, which are concerning signs of self-neglect. Before taking action, it is crucial for the nurse to collect more data to determine the root cause of these issues. Jumping to conclusions or immediately involving social services without a thorough assessment could potentially harm the client or strain relationships. Discussing the need for mental health counseling with the daughter or simply advising the client to take better care of herself may not address the underlying problem of self-neglect. Therefore, the most appropriate initial action is for the nurse to collect further data to make an informed decision before taking the next steps.
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