Nursing Elites

1. How many temporary teeth should the nurse expect to find in a 5-year-old client's mouth?

• A. up to 10
• B. up to 15
• C. up to 20
• D. up to 32

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A 5-year-old child can have up to 20 temporary (deciduous or baby) teeth. The first tooth usually erupts by age 6 months, and the last by age 30 months. All temporary teeth are usually shed between 6 and 13 years of age. Therefore, a 5-year-old child should have up to 20 temporary teeth. The correct answer is 'up to 20.' Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the correct number of temporary teeth in a 5-year-old child's mouth is up to 20, not 10, 15, or 32.

2. How does cancer affect pain tolerance in elderly clients?

• A. Remain constant.
• B. Decrease.
• C. Increase.
• D. Cancer has no impact on pain tolerance in elderly clients.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pain tolerance in elderly clients with cancer is likely to decrease due to factors such as diminished adaptative capacity, increased physical discomfort, and the psychological impact of the disease. Cancer is known to cause various physical and emotional stressors that can lower the pain threshold, leading to a decrease in pain tolerance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cancer and its associated effects typically result in a decrease in pain tolerance rather than remaining constant, increasing, or having no impact.

3. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

4. How often should physical restraints be released?

• A. Every 2 hours
• B. Between 1 and 3 hours
• C. Every 30 minutes
• D. At least every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.

5. Which of these types of fluid output is not typically measured?

• A. chest tube drainage
• B. emesis
• C. evaporative water from the respiratory tract
• D. urine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'urine.' Urine output is routinely measured to assess renal function and fluid balance. Choices A, B, and C are types of fluid output that are typically measured in a clinical setting. Chest tube drainage is monitored to evaluate drainage from the chest cavity, emesis refers to vomitus which can indicate gastrointestinal issues, and evaporative water from the respiratory tract is considered insensible loss and is not directly measured but estimated in overall fluid balance assessments.

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