Nursing Elites

1. During an emergency procedure, is the surgical timeout a requirement?

• A. The surgical timeout should be performed by the surgical team unless it would cause a delay leading to injury or death.
• B. No, the timeout is not necessary during an emergency procedure.
• C. No, the surgical timeout is not required in emergency procedures.
• D. Yes, the surgical timeout must be performed in all cases.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an emergency procedure, the surgical timeout should be performed unless doing so would cause a delay leading to injury or death. This is because the primary goal during an emergency is to swiftly address the critical situation. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that the timeout is not necessary, which is not accurate. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests that the timeout is not required in emergency procedures, disregarding safety protocols. Choice D is incorrect as it wrongly states that the timeout must be performed in all cases without considering the potential risks associated with delays during emergencies.

2. Which of these statements from the caregiver of a palliative care client indicates a proper understanding?

• A. This treatment plan usually indicates a prognosis of less than 6 months.
• B. We will need to stay in the hospital to receive this level of care.
• C. The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.
• D. The medications to treat the underlying disease will be continued.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.' This statement reflects a proper understanding of palliative care, which focuses on improving the patient's quality of life and providing comfort. It does not necessarily mean a prognosis of less than 6 months or require hospitalization. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care can be provided regardless of the prognosis. Choice B is wrong as palliative care can be administered in various settings, not just hospitals. Choice D is inaccurate as palliative care aims to improve symptoms and quality of life, so medications may be adjusted but not necessarily stopped.

3. Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. Protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.

4. A 4-year-old client is unable to go to sleep at night in the hospital. Which nursing intervention best promotes sleep for the child?

• A. turning off the room light and closing the door
• B. engaging the child in calming activities before bedtime
• C. identifying the child's home bedtime rituals and following them
• D. encouraging relaxation techniques like deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a 4-year-old client struggling to sleep in the hospital, the best nursing intervention is to identify the child's home bedtime rituals and follow them. Preschool-age children often have specific bedtime routines that provide comfort and promote sleep. This familiarity can help create a sense of security in an unfamiliar hospital environment. Choice A, turning off the room light and closing the door, may increase the child's fear of the dark and being alone. Choice B, engaging the child in calming activities before bedtime, is a better choice than tiring them with play exercises. Choice D, encouraging relaxation techniques like deep breathing exercises, although helpful, may not be as effective as following the child's familiar bedtime routines.

5. A case manager is reviewing the records of the clients in the nursing unit. Which note(s) in a client's record indicate an unexpected outcome and the need for follow-up?

• A. A client is performing their own colostomy irrigations.
• B. A client with a central venous catheter has a temperature of 100.6�F.
• C. A client who has just undergone surgery has a urine output of more than 30 mL/hr.
• D. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is self-administering insulin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A case manager is a healthcare professional responsible for coordinating a client's care from admission through and after discharge. They evaluate and update the plan of care as needed, monitoring for unexpected outcomes and providing follow-up. A temperature of 100.6�F in a client with a central venous catheter is an unexpected outcome that requires follow-up due to the potential indication of an infection. Choices A, C, and D describe expected outcomes and appropriate self-care management. The client self-irrigating their colostomy, a post-surgical client having adequate urine output, and a newly diagnosed diabetic self-administering insulin are all positive indicators of self-care and expected outcomes, not requiring immediate follow-up.

Similar Questions