Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following clients would be most appropriate for an LPN to assign to a nursing assistant?

• A. an 18-year-old client with a femur fracture who is just returning to the floor from the recovery unit
• B. an 84-year-old client 2 days post-op after knee replacement surgery who needs help ambulating
• C. a 35-year-old client who is suffering from an acute asthma attack
• D. a 20-year-old client with Cystic Fibrosis who needs an early morning sputum sample collection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Collecting sputum samples on stable clients is within the scope of practice for an LPN. This task does not require immediate intervention or assessment by an RN or medical provider. An RN should perform the initial assessment on any client immediately post-op as it requires a higher level of assessment and monitoring. A client suffering from an acute asthma attack should be attended to by an RN or medical provider due to the potential severity and need for prompt intervention. Assigning a medically stable client who needs help ambulating to a nursing assistant is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice and allows the LPN to focus on tasks that require their expertise.

2. During an emergency procedure, is the surgical timeout a requirement?

• A. The surgical timeout should be performed by the surgical team unless it would cause a delay leading to injury or death.
• B. No, the timeout is not necessary during an emergency procedure.
• C. No, the surgical timeout is not required in emergency procedures.
• D. Yes, the surgical timeout must be performed in all cases.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an emergency procedure, the surgical timeout should be performed unless doing so would cause a delay leading to injury or death. This is because the primary goal during an emergency is to swiftly address the critical situation. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that the timeout is not necessary, which is not accurate. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests that the timeout is not required in emergency procedures, disregarding safety protocols. Choice D is incorrect as it wrongly states that the timeout must be performed in all cases without considering the potential risks associated with delays during emergencies.

3. A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.

4. When administering NSAID adjunctive therapy to an elderly client with cancer, the nurse must monitor:

• A. BUN and creatinine.
• B. creatinine and calcium.
• C. Hgb and Hct.
• D. BUN and CFT.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an elderly client with cancer is receiving NSAID therapy, monitoring BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine levels is crucial. NSAIDs can cause renal toxicity, especially in the elderly. BUN and creatinine levels help assess renal function and detect early signs of renal impairment. Monitoring creatinine alone (Choice B) is not sufficient as BUN provides complementary information about renal function. Monitoring hemoglobin (Hgb) and hematocrit (Hct) (Choice C) is important for assessing anemia but not specific to NSAID therapy in the elderly. CFT (Choice D) is not a standard abbreviation in this context, and monitoring coagulation function is not directly related to NSAID therapy in this scenario.

5. In an obstetrical emergency, which of the following actions should the nurse perform first after the baby delivers?

• A. Place extra padding under the mother to absorb blood from the delivery.
• B. Cut the umbilical cord using sterile scissors.
• C. Suction the baby's mouth and nose.
• D. Wrap the baby in a clean blanket to preserve warmth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an obstetrical emergency, the immediate action the nurse should take after the baby delivers is to suction the baby's mouth and nose to ensure the infant can breathe properly. This helps clear any potential obstructions and establish a clear airway. Cutting the umbilical cord (Choice B) and wrapping the baby in a clean blanket (Choice D) are important steps but should come after ensuring the baby's airway is clear. Placing extra padding under the mother (Choice A) is not a priority in this emergency situation as the focus should be on the baby's immediate needs for breathing and airway clearance.

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