at 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section, the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drinking liquids before surgery can increase the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Therefore, the anesthesia care provider must be informed immediately to determine how to proceed, as this could delay or alter the surgical plan. Canceling the surgery without consulting the anesthesia care provider would be premature and could potentially lead to unnecessary actions. Asking the client if she has had any other liquids is important but not the first priority. Proceeding with routine preparations without addressing the potential issue of ingesting liquids before surgery could compromise the client's safety.

2. Which documentation indicates that activities to prevent postoperative venous stasis were performed correctly?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Antiembolism stockings on, leg exercises performed hourly.' This documentation indicates the correct performance of activities to prevent postoperative venous stasis, as both components are crucial for prevention. Choice B is incorrect because removing stockings hourly is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as leg exercises should be performed despite wearing antiembolism stockings. Choice D is incorrect as demonstrating the ability to move extremities well does not specifically address the prevention of venous stasis.

3. A client with chronic heart failure is admitted with worsening dyspnea. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing worsening dyspnea, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. This helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Administering a diuretic (Choice B) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation comes first. While assessing lung sounds (Choice C) is important, it is not the immediate priority when the client is in respiratory distress. Repositioning the client (Choice D) may help with comfort but does not address the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation.

4. A client with hyperkalemia is receiving insulin and glucose. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium level. When administering insulin and glucose in hyperkalemia, the aim is to shift potassium from the bloodstream into the cells, lowering elevated levels. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels closely is essential to prevent hypokalemia or further complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Monitoring sodium (Choice B) and calcium levels (Choice C) is not directly related to the treatment of hyperkalemia with insulin and glucose.

5. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, that the outer part of her eyebrows has disappeared, and that her eyes are puffy. What follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cold intolerance, fatigue, and other changes may indicate hypothyroidism, which could explain the hair and eyebrow loss, and puffy eyes. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the symptoms presented by the client.

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