Nursing Elites

1. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Improved blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Reduced preload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

2. After receiving a report on an inpatient acute care unit, which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. Client with pneumonia who has a fever of 101.5°F
• B. Client who underwent knee surgery and needs dressing change
• C. Client with a bowel obstruction due to a volvulus experiencing abdominal rigidity
• D. Client with diabetes requesting insulin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Abdominal rigidity in a client with a bowel obstruction could indicate peritonitis, a serious complication requiring immediate attention. Volvulus, a twisting of the intestine, can lead to bowel ischemia and necrosis. Clients with pneumonia (choice A) may need assessment and treatment for infection, but it is not as immediately life-threatening as a bowel obstruction. A client who underwent knee surgery (choice B) needing a dressing change can typically wait for assessment compared to a potential surgical emergency. Similarly, a client with diabetes requesting insulin (choice D) may require attention to maintain blood glucose levels, but it is not as urgent as a suspected bowel obstruction with possible peritonitis.

3. A client with a 42-week gestation refuses induction. What is the most important action the nurse should take?

• A. Discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan.
• B. Explain the risks of induction after 42 weeks.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client.
• D. Discuss the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan. By doing so, the nurse can ensure that the client feels heard, respected, and supported in their decision-making process. While explaining the risks of induction after 42 weeks (Choice B) may be important, it is secondary to supporting the client's autonomy and preferences. Asking the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client (Choice C) may delay crucial communication and support that the nurse can provide. Discussing the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor (Choice D) is not the priority when the client has refused induction, as the focus should be on respecting their decision and exploring other options for support.

4. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) reports frequent heartburn. What dietary modification should the nurse recommend?

• A. Avoid eating large meals late at night.
• B. Eat a high-fat diet to buffer stomach acid.
• C. Reduce fluid intake to prevent acid reflux.
• D. Consume spicy foods to neutralize stomach acid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend avoiding eating large meals late at night. This dietary modification can help reduce the risk of acid reflux, which can exacerbate GERD symptoms. Consuming smaller, more frequent meals is generally recommended to minimize pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice B is incorrect because a high-fat diet can worsen GERD symptoms by delaying stomach emptying. Choice C is incorrect because reducing fluid intake can lead to dehydration and will not prevent acid reflux. Choice D is incorrect because spicy foods can actually trigger or worsen acid reflux symptoms in individuals with GERD.

5. What symptoms suggest the dosage of levothyroxine sodium is too high in a 26-year-old client with simple goiter?

• A. Bradycardia and constipation.
• B. Palpitations and shortness of breath.
• C. Lethargy and lack of appetite.
• D. Muscle cramps and dry skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Palpitations and shortness of breath. These symptoms suggest excessive thyroid hormone levels, indicating that the levothyroxine dose is too high. Bradycardia and constipation (choice A) are more indicative of hypothyroidism, which occurs when thyroid hormone levels are low. Lethargy and lack of appetite (choice C) are also common symptoms of hypothyroidism. Muscle cramps and dry skin (choice D) can be associated with various conditions but are not specific to a high dosage of levothyroxine.

Similar Questions