an older client with a long history of coronary artery disease htn and hf arrives in the ed in respiratory distress the healthcare provider prescribes
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with newly diagnosed hypertension. Which lifestyle modification should the nurse emphasize to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Engaging in regular physical activity is a crucial lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. Regular exercise helps improve cardiovascular health, lower blood pressure, and contribute to overall well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake is not recommended for hypertension as it can worsen fluid retention and elevate blood pressure. Increasing caffeine intake is also not advised as it may lead to increased heart rate and blood pressure. Reducing potassium intake is not beneficial as potassium is essential for maintaining healthy blood pressure levels.

3. A client with chronic heart failure is admitted with worsening dyspnea. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing worsening dyspnea, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. This helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Administering a diuretic (Choice B) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation comes first. While assessing lung sounds (Choice C) is important, it is not the immediate priority when the client is in respiratory distress. Repositioning the client (Choice D) may help with comfort but does not address the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation.

4. A client is receiving IV fluid therapy for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's fluid status is improving?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in urine output is a positive sign that the client's hydration status is improving. It indicates that the kidneys are functioning well and that fluid therapy is effective. Increased urine output helps to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Feeling more thirsty (choice B) is a sign of dehydration, not improvement. A decrease in blood pressure (choice C) and an increase in heart rate (choice D) are not typically indicative of improving fluid status during IV fluid therapy for dehydration.

5. A female client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is sedated and on a ventilator with 50% FIO2. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diminished breath sounds in a sedated client with ARDS and on a ventilator indicate collapsed alveoli, which requires immediate intervention, such as chest tube insertion, to prevent further lung damage. Assessing bilateral lung sounds (Choice A) is important but not as urgent as identifying diminished sounds in a specific location. Monitoring ventilator settings (Choice C) is essential but does not directly address the immediate need for intervention due to diminished breath sounds. Increased sputum production and shortness of breath (Choice D) may indicate other issues but are not specific to the urgency of addressing diminished breath sounds in ARDS.

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