HESI RN
Adult Health 1 HESI
1. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
- B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
- C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
- D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.
2. The nurse requests a meal tray for a client who follows Mormon beliefs and who is on a clear liquid diet following abdominal surgery. Which menu items should the nurse request for this client? (Select all that apply)
- A. apple juice
- B. black coffee
- C. orange juice
- D. hot chocolate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: apple juice. Clear liquids like apple juice and orange juice are suitable for a client following a clear liquid diet and Mormon beliefs. Options B and D, black coffee and hot chocolate, contain caffeine, which may not align with the client's religious dietary restrictions. Therefore, these options should be avoided for this client.
3. When assessing a pregnant patient with eclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate, which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?
- A. The bibasilar breath sounds are decreased.
- B. The patellar and triceps reflexes are absent.
- C. The patient has been sleeping most of the day.
- D. The patient reports feeling 'sick to my stomach.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of patellar and triceps reflexes indicates potential magnesium toxicity, requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and lethargy are common side effects of elevated magnesium levels and should be reported, but they are not as critical as the loss of deep tendon reflexes. Decreased breath sounds suggest the need for coughing and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis, which is important but not as urgent as addressing magnesium toxicity.
4. IV potassium chloride (KCl) 60 mEq is prescribed for the treatment of a patient with severe hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the KCl as a rapid IV bolus.
- B. Infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hour.
- C. Only give the KCl through a central venous line.
- D. Discontinue cardiac monitoring during the infusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Rapid IV infusion of KCl can lead to cardiac arrest due to its potential for causing hyperkalemia. While KCl can be administered through peripheral veins, central venous lines are not necessary unless specified. It is crucial to continue cardiac monitoring during potassium infusion to promptly identify and manage any potential dysrhythmias that may occur.
5. A client who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is requesting information on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. Which action should the nurse recommend first?
- A. Plan low-carbohydrate and high-protein meals
- B. Engage in moderate physical activity for an hour daily
- C. Keep a record of food and drinks consumed daily
- D. Participate in a group exercise class 3 times a week
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A BMI of 30 indicates the patient is obese. The first step in a weight loss plan should be to keep a food journal to track calorie intake, which can help in meal planning and creating a workout routine. Choice (A) suggests a dietary approach, which is important but not the first step. Choice (B) recommends strenuous activity, which may not be suitable for everyone and is not the initial step. Choice (D) involves group exercise, which can be beneficial but is not the primary action to take at the beginning of a weight loss plan.
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